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#133786 - 09/11/03 01:35 PM "The term full of grace as used by Luke and John"
Stephanos I Offline
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Registered: 02/03/02
Posts: 2502
Loc: West Coast
How is our understandoing of Jesus and Mary affected by how we translate the words "full of grace" Luke 1:28 and John 1:14.
(Chaire Kecharitomen) (gratiae plena )as predicated of the Virgin Mary by Luke and ("pleres charitos") (plenum gratiae) as predicated of Jesus by John?
Stephanos I

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#133787 - 09/11/03 04:20 PM Re: "The term full of grace as used by Luke and John"
Orthodox Catholic Offline
Member

Registered: 11/05/01
Posts: 22291
Loc: Canada
Dear Patriarch Stephanos,

I always thought the difference to be that of the Mother of God being graced BY God and Christ being the SOURCE of Grace as God.

The former is filled with Grace by another, the latter is Grace Incarnate.

Something similar occurs in the two Ukrainian words for "Resurrection."

"Voskresi'nnya" applies to the resurrection of us all coming from the notion of "being resurrected" (by Christ our God)>

"Voskre'sennya" can apply only to the Resurrection of Christ Who "resurrects Himself."

Alex

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#133788 - 09/11/03 06:36 PM Re: "The term full of grace as used by Luke and John"
Stephanos I Offline
Member

Registered: 02/03/02
Posts: 2502
Loc: West Coast
Alex
Good point of course that is completely in line with my thinking. Mary is the Creature and God the Creator. But I was getting to the point of our understanding of "sinlessness" as being filled with grace.
And BTW Patriarch?Moi?
No way.

Stephanos I

PS lets clear up why I am Stephanos I, we they had the crash awhile back I was simply Stephanos the greek version of my name, when I tried to relog on, I was not able to since Stephanos was already used, hence I became Stephanos I

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