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#219708 - 01/13/07 06:30 PM
The relevant sociological evidence
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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Sociological concerns have been one of the main reasons that is given for inclusive language in the new translation: Liturgiam Authenticam is for the Roman Church, not the Byzantine Church - and for a very good reason. The whole question is "inclusive language" is not a "Ruthenian recension" question but one of ecclesiology, theology and sociology. In the world today, however, gender roles are changing. This bodes massive sociological realignments. Whenever this happens, there is social displacement, even violence. When America faced the problem of slavery and thus of social realignment in the nineteenth century, it led to one of the most bloody wars in history. This is perhaps the reason for “extreme” emotion. We cannot have a physical war between men and women. In time, I think, things will settle down again. The world has changed, and the “text,” the language by which we govern our relationships, has also changed I think it is quite clear that the theological and eccelsiological reasons for inclusive language have been shown to be non-existent and even contrary to the faith. What, therefore, is the relevant sociological evidence which necessitates inclusive language? I suggest the most important sociological evidence for the Church to consider is that 50% of marriages end in divorce which of course is destructive of the family. I would add that the other relevant sociological evidence is that birth rates are down especially in Europe, but also in the United States. This evidence means that there is a failure to understand the very nature of marriage, which is to fail to understand marriage as a sign of Christ's love for the Church, and a failure to understand what is really important about the relationship between the sexes. This evidence does not mean that we need inclusive language, but rather that we need to develop a radical understanding of Genesis and what true masculinity is and what true femininity is.
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#219931 - 01/15/07 10:05 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: Wondering]
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Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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The quotes are from Fr. David Petras who was on the committee responsible for the translation. The first is from this website. The second is from his website and response to Fr. Serge.
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#219935 - 01/15/07 11:04 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: lm]
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Registered: 08/27/05
Posts: 1407
Loc: USA
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Thank you, Im.
It is my opinion that the female vs. male "war" was mainly played out in the '60s through the '90s, and we are only seeing small skirmishes now. It is clear that our society as a whole is shifting more traditional and conservative. For instance, newspaper reports abound about the number of college-educated women who are choosing to marry and stay home to parent. Abortions and adoptions among teens have both dropped, with the young mothers often choosing to parent as well. The stigma of being a stay-at-home-mom is quickly being lost. The rigidity of "pregnant, barefoot, and in the kitchen" is also being dropped by most allowing for personal expression in the family unit for how best to play out the traditional needs and roles. We really have gone through a revolution of sorts, but I believe the random shots we hear nowadays are just the sounds of retreat.
I agree with Im. Now is the time to evangelize to these hungry people who have a new-found freedom of choices their parents and grandparents didn't have, but also have a new-found respect for the traditional gender roles. Many of them have little to no examples and they need guidance and support to make such a radical transition.
If the commission was concerned about the massive cultural shift of today, they should have concentrated more on masculinity than femininity, which was the shift of decades past. The latter have already started finding their groove while the former are now in the position of needing to find their place among it all. Not only must they now be the equals in the housework and parenting, but also be the family providers most times. If we get them the message now of what their primary roles as husband, father, and provider are, it will spare us the male version of the '60s from being played out a decade from now when they are burned out from trying to do it all, with no guidance or support along the way.
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#219943 - 01/15/07 11:37 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: Carson Daniel]
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Member
Registered: 04/28/06
Posts: 58
Loc: usa
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I am in total agreement with IM.
"The problem isn't with the language. The problem is with a group of women who want to re-engineer language to make themselves "feel" better."
My question- now which one of these women were on our commission? Lets not make excuses or blame some unidentified group of women. Our commission members suggested the changes and our bishops agreed.
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#220000 - 01/16/07 12:36 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: Monomakh]
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Registered: 01/14/07
Posts: 496
Loc: Midwest
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It is quite obvious that the issue of "inclusive" language is VERY emotional and touches many issues that good people feel very deeply about. It is not my point in this brief post to discuss the pros and cons of using inclusive language, but I did want to briefly address the question of "sociological evidence" as mentioned in the original quotes from Fr David.
Over the years, as I have taught in higher education, I have noticed a change in the way in which students are taught in Composition I and Composition II. This change then bleeds through to the courses I teach (especially as it relates to research papers).
The texts that are routinely used in these early writing courses uniformly teach the students that the use of "man" and "mankind" is sexist and reflects a patriarchal/misogynist attitude towards women. I have had the opportunity to "sit in" a couple of these courses and have heard professors go on at length about the "misuse" of the words "man" and "mankind", etc. I have even heard them use liturgical texts as examples of this misogyny, etc.
Obviously, I disagree with these professors. I want to make this point clear. But ...
The point is this: these students, having been taught that "mankind" refers only to males and the word "man" refers only to males, hear the Liturgy differently than I do. When they hear the statement "You are good and love mankind," they hear "You are good and love males." As the years pass, more and more of our young people will hear incorrect theology when they attend the Liturgy. (There is a sad parallel to this in ecclesiastical history -- think about the 4th Ecumenical Council and the unfortunate split in the Church because people from the edges of the Byzantine Empire heard and understood the words "nature" and "person" differently from the people in the center of the Empire. Most scholars now recognize that this division was caused by a misunderstanding of language and not a real theological difference. But think about the consequences of using a word that people did not understand correctly!)
So what is the Church to do? She has two choices. 1) To instruct people what the words "mankind" and "man" mean as they are used in the Liturgy; OR 2) To change the words so that the confusion is removed. As far as I am concerned, cogent arguments can be made to support each decision.
For me, the point at issue is not our theological understanding of gender, God's plan for salvation, etc. What we are debating is the best way to communicate this unchanging ("once and for all") theology of the Church to the people of today.
The Apostle Paul said, "I become all things to all men/people so that I might win some." What does this mean for the Church today? How does the Church remove cultural obstacles (i.e., cultural understandings of words) to the faith without changing the substance/essence of the faith? What is the relationship between the words we use and the faith we profess? When are the words so important that should not be changed? Etc. I think these are very difficult questions -- and I respect those who disagree in the answers they give.
I believe that the vast majority of people who are struggling over this are trying to be faithful to the Church's teaching while at the same time trying equally hard to be obedient to Christ's command to evangelize and make disciples of every nation. (Are errors made on both sides? Absolutely. Are there a few people with agendas on both sides? Absolutely. But I believe these are the exception rather than the norm. Perhaps I am naive, but I would rather err on the side of charity in this regard.) In my experience, most of the people I have listened to as they debate the issue really are good loving Christians trying to help other people come to know and understand the Truth of God's saving love for "all of us"/"mankind"/"humanity". And for that, I am thankful!
Edited by PrJ (01/16/07 12:38 PM)
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#220009 - 01/16/07 01:26 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: PrJ]
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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What we are debating is the best way to communicate this unchanging ("once and for all") theology of the Church to the people of today. Here is what Rome has said about the issue: 30. In many languages there exist nouns and pronouns denoting both genders, masculine and feminine, together in a single term. The insistence that such a usage should be changed is not necessarily to be regarded as the effect or the manifestation of an authentic development of the language as such. Even if it may be necessary by means of catechesis to ensure that such words continue to be understood in the "inclusive" sense just described, it may not be possible to employ different words in the translations themselves without detriment to the precise intended meaning of the text, the correlation of its various words or expressions, or its aesthetic qualities. When the original text, for example, employs a single term in expressing the interplay between the individual and the universality and unity of the human family or community (such as the Hebrew word 'adam, the Greek anthropos, or the Latin homo), this property of the language of the original text should be maintained in the translation. Just as has occurred at other times in history, the Church herself must freely decide upon the system of language that will serve her doctrinal mission most effectively, and should not be subject to externally imposed linguistic norms that are detrimental to that mission....The translation should not restrict the full sense of the original text within narrower limits. To be avoided on this account are expressions characteristic of commercial publicity, political or ideological programs, passing fashions, and those which are subject to regional variations or ambiguities in meaning. Academic style manuals or similar works, since they sometimes give way to such tendencies, are not to be considered standards for liturgical translation. On the other hand, works that are commonly considered "classics" in a given vernacular language may prove useful in providing a suitable standard for its vocabulary and usage. Liturgiam Authenticam Here is what St. Paul has said: Do not be conformed to this world * but be transformed by the renewal of your mind, that you may prove what is the will of God, what is good and acceptable and perfect. Chapter 12 of Romans
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#220012 - 01/16/07 01:32 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: PrJ]
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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The Apostle Paul said, "I become all things to all men/people Please find the text where St. Paul says, "I become all things to all men/people. St. Paul actually says: I have become all things to all men... 1 Cortinthians 9 You are revising scripture to defend revisions in the Creed and the Liturgy which demonstrates that the revisionist project to exterminate so called "sexist" language must, by it's own logic, make further revisions. Therein lies the problem.
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#220019 - 01/16/07 02:01 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: PrJ]
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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It is quite obvious that the issue of "inclusive" language is VERY emotional and touches many issues that good people feel very deeply about. I would say that it is only emotional on one side, for that is all there is to defend its use, emotion, that some men feel very strongly that it ought not to be used On the other side, it is simply a matter of sound principle and argument. Perhaps I am naive, but I would rather err on the side of charity in this regard.) I too would rather err on the side of charity and risk offending with the truth, rather than overlook the fact that the Creed is being changed without the benefit of an Ecumenical Council.
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#220020 - 01/16/07 02:08 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: lm]
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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I would say that it is only emotional on one side, for that is all there is to defend its use, emotion, that some men feel very strongly that it ought not to be used
Let me be more clear. The it in the next to the last line above, refers to the antecedent "men" and which is used in its unmarked sense so as to include men and women. I would say that the eradication of so called "sexist" language is only emotional on one side, for that is all there is to defend its eradication, the emotion some men feel that "sexist" language ought to be eradicated.
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#220022 - 01/16/07 02:09 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: lm]
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Moderator
Member
Registered: 08/29/98
Posts: 3811
Loc: Washington, PA
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And now for a quick moment of irony...
In LA itself: "the individual and the universality and unity of the human family or community "
_________________________
My cromulent posts embiggen this forum.
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#220029 - 01/16/07 02:59 PM
Re: The relevant sociological evidence
[Re: Fr. Deacon Lance]
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Member
Registered: 08/29/05
Posts: 942
Loc: usa
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Fr. Deacon Lance,
There is no irony there, that's the Vatican telling us what "men" means. It's doing exactly what it was saying should be done--it is teaching--it is not changing the Creed because of a political agenda.
lm
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