The Byzantine Forum
Newest Members
Annapolis Melkites, Daniel Hoseiny, PaulV, ungvar1900, Donna Zoll
5,993 Registered Users
Who's Online Now
0 members (), 333 guests, and 42 robots.
Key: Admin, Global Mod, Mod
Latest Photos
St. Sharbel Maronite Mission El Paso
St. Sharbel Maronite Mission El Paso
by orthodoxsinner2, September 30
Holy Saturday from Kirkland Lake
Holy Saturday from Kirkland Lake
by Veronica.H, April 24
Byzantine Catholic Outreach of Iowa
Exterior of Holy Angels Byzantine Catholic Parish
Church of St Cyril of Turau & All Patron Saints of Belarus
Forum Statistics
Forums26
Topics35,393
Posts416,749
Members5,993
Most Online3,380
Dec 29th, 2019
Previous Thread
Next Thread
Print Thread
Page 7 of 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by StuartK
I love the anachronistic mindset of the naively self-satisfied laity. So do the folks at the various Orthodox publishing houses that sell those things.
Historic facts are anachronistic?

Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by danman916
Originally Posted by AMM
Certainly he recognized influences have always entered the church from various places, and what is critical is not guarding the purity of the church but incorporating the changes that do enter and making sure they conform with theology that is Orthodox. I can see many things in my own parish that are not Byzantine in origin, but they are Orthodox.
That's exactly the same thing that Latin Rite Catholics understand under the terms development of doctrine.
Bernard of Clairveaux denouncing the IC as an innovation and your Pope Pius declaring it apostolic dogma is not the same thing as making Orthodox changes in the Divine Liturgy.

Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
The Western Rite Orthodox.

Not a Church, merely a ritual adjunct of a particular jurisdiction of a Church.

What is the Latin Patriarchate of Jerusalem?

Looking up "sui juris" in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" of just a century ago, nothing came up about such churches. Looking up "Eastern Churches" brought up this:

Quote
The definition of an Eastern-Rite Catholic is: A Christian of any Eastern rite in union with the pope: i.e. a Catholic who belongs not to the Roman, but to an Eastern rite.
Nihil Obstat. May 1, 1909. Remy Lafort, Censor. Imprimatur. +John M. Farley, Archbishop of New York

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05230a.htm

So, they are in the Roman pontiff's jurisdiction, no? I think Cum Data Fuerit made that clear. While the Churches issue confirmation of the protection of their WRO "adjuncts," last year among a number of Eastern bishops at the Vatican, the issue of how much they were not "merely a ritual adjunct of a particular jurisdiction of a Church" came up.

Quote
Roman Synod: Eastern Catholic Bishop Calls for End to Ban on Ordaining Married Men

This “Ban” has not always been successful as some Eastern Catholic Bishops have imported married priests from Ukraine, Slovakia, Romania and other Eastern countries. The Ruthenian Byzantine Catholic Church, which is the only self-governing Eastern Catholic Church in the USA, was forced by Rome in 1999 to put a clause into its Particular Law that it would have to get dispensations from Rome before it would ordain any married men as priests.

Some other Eastern Catholic Bishops have started ordaining married men in some areas but it’s not clear what Rome’s take is on this development. A 2003 America article carried a statement that such ordinations went against canon law.

Msgr. Lucian Lamza, an official in the Vatican’s Congregation for Eastern Churches [IIRC, made up of Latin bishops], said on May 22 that the Vatican’s ban on the ordination of married men for the Eastern churches in the West “remains unchanged.” The ordinations “are against the norm,” he said. “But, of course, these priests can validly celebrate the liturgy and sacraments,” since the ordinations are sacramentally valid. He would not discuss the Vatican’s reaction or lack of reaction to the ordinations.

Some have speculated that the right of Eastern Catholic Churches to ordain married men to the priesthood in the West is viewed of lesser importance by Rome (and thus the continued Ban) due to the drive by some in the Latin Rite for a married priesthood. From this point of view, opening the door to a married clergy in the Eastern Catholic Churches might bolster support for further criticisms in the Western Church.

Coptic Bishop Antonios Aziz Mina of Guizeh, Egypt, said that especially when there are more faithful of an Eastern church living outside than inside the church’s territory, “it is not entirely logical that some faithful who belong to a ‘sui iuris’ church have no relationship with the church they belong to, other than liturgically.”

At present, many Eastern Catholics living outside of their home territories are under the care of Latin Rite Bishops unless an Eastern Catholic hierarchy has been set up.

Bishop Aziz Mina went on to request that Pope Benedict withdraw the Ban on ordaining married men.

http://catholicexchange.com/2010/10/21/139404/

Originally Posted by StuartK
And one viewed with suspicion by a large number of Orthodox, at that.

That differs from the run-of-the-mill suspicion by Slavs of Greek usage and vice versa how?

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
IMHO the Coptic, Syriac, Armenian, Ethiopian, Indian. Btw, the Churches of Alexandria and Antioch still for most of their history did not use the rite of Constantinople.

And the Eastern Orthodox are not in communion with them, are they?


IMHO, yes we are.

Originally Posted by StuartK
As I said, after the Islamic conquest of the Near East and much of Anatolia, the Church of Constantinople turned inward, and what had been a multi-ethnic, multi-cultural, multi-ritual and doctrinally diverse communion of Eastern Churches became an introspective and exclusively Greek Church.


And you explain the mission of SS. Cyril and Methodius how?

Originally Posted by StuartK
In the meanwhile, freed from the oppression of Constantinople, and actively encouraged by their new Muslim overlords, the Churches of Alexandria, Ethiopia, Syria and Armenia went their own way,


You mean the non-Chalcedonians? They went their own way two centuries before "their new Muslim overlords" showed up. But not really: witness the Henoticon, and non-Chalcedonianism at Constantinople.

Originally Posted by StuartK
preserving their traditional liturgies

For over half a millenium after "their new Muslim overlords" showed up, the Greeks and Copts in the Patriarchate of Alexandria, and the Greeks, Syriacs and Arabs in the Patriarchate of Antioch had the same traditional liturgies.

Originally Posted by StuartK
and their modes of doctrinal expression.


You will have to explain what you mean by "mode of doctrinal expression."

Originally Posted by StuartK
Those communities that remained loyal to Byzantium,

Byzantium became history over three centuries before "their new Muslim overlords" showed up.

Originally Posted by StuartK
now known as Melkites,

Btw in Arabic, the language most of us speak, the word for "Melkite" is "ruumii" "Roman."

Originally Posted by StuartK
switched to the Byzantine rite,

Neither Alexandria nor Antioch switched to the rite of Constantinople until the decade before the Crusaders sacked Constantinople.

Originally Posted by StuartK
and became nothing more than rump Churches entirely dependent upon Constantinople for their survival.

The Chalcedonian and Greek Church retained a presence in Egypt (the legate from Egypt to the Seventh Ecumenical Council, the Abbot Thomsd of S. Arsenius and syncellos of the Pope of Alexandria, became in time the Archbishop of Thessalonica, recently translated from Rome to New Rome's patriarchate). In Antioch the Chalcedonians constituted the majority of the the Patriarchate. In Jerusalem, they remained the only native element of the Patriarchate.

Originally Posted by StuartK
The Greek Orthodox Patriarchates of Alexandria, Antioch and Jerusalem were little more than suffragans of the Patriarch of Constantinople.

Hardly. The role of Pat. Sophronius of Jerusalem alone preserving the Orthodox Faith of the Catholic Church is well known, and mentioned by name by the Fathers of the Sixth Ecumenical Council. The Iconoclasts' council of Hieria is called "headless" because the patriarchates of Alexandria, Antioch and Jerusalem refused to take part, and continued to confess the Orthodox Faith, defending the icons. They were not able to attend the Seventh Ecumenical Council, but did send their legates. Patriarch John of Antioch refused to blindly follow EP Michael Celarius, and tried to save Old and New Rome from their own stupidities and arrogance. It doesn't seem until the Crusades that the patriarchs became dependent on Constantinople.

Joined: Feb 2005
Posts: 1,431
Member
Offline
Member
Joined: Feb 2005
Posts: 1,431
A couple points regarding the links you provided.

With regard to that post on catholicexchange.com [catholicexchange.com], I believe this is the news article in question:
http://www.catholicnews.com/data/stories/cns/1004186.htm


Originally Posted by IAlmisry
Looking up "sui juris" in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" of just a century ago, nothing came up about such churches. Looking up "Eastern Churches" brought up this:

Quote
The definition of an Eastern-Rite Catholic is: A Christian of any Eastern rite in union with the pope: i.e. a Catholic who belongs not to the Roman, but to an Eastern rite.
Nihil Obstat. May 1, 1909. Remy Lafort, Censor. Imprimatur. +John M. Farley, Archbishop of New York

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05230a.htm

Hmm, a 1909 article from the Catholic Encyclopedia. If you're trying to convince us that that's not a time period we Catholics ought to be proud of ... well let's just say that many of us are already convinced. eek

Last edited by Peter J; 02/24/11 01:30 PM.
Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
S
Member
Offline
Member
S
Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
Quote
What is the Latin Patriarchate of Jerusalem?

A titulary, as in titularies on a bull. He heads no Church, has no extraterritorial jurisdiction. He's a jackalope.

Quote
Looking up "sui juris" in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" of just a century ago, nothing came up about such churches. Looking up "Eastern Churches" brought up this:

Not being very friendly or helpful. I can't believe you think this is a serious argument.

Quote
And you explain the mission of SS. Cyril and Methodius how?

Brought Byzantine Christianity and Byzantine culture as a turnkey operation. Again, are you being disingenuous or do you truly not understand what you are saying?

Quote
You mean the non-Chalcedonians? They went their own way two centuries before "their new Muslim overlords" showed up. But not really: witness the Henoticon, and non-Chalcedonianism at Constantinople.

Not nearly so simple as that. Suggest you do read some Orthodox historians on the subject. I can provide a reading list.

Quote
For over half a millenium after "their new Muslim overlords" showed up, the Greeks and Copts in the Patriarchate of Alexandria, and the Greeks, Syriacs and Arabs in the Patriarchate of Antioch had the same traditional liturgies.

Um, no.

Quote
You will have to explain what you mean by "mode of doctrinal expression."

Oh, for example, Cyrilian Christology vs. Chalcedonian Christology.

Quote
Btw in Arabic, the language most of us speak, the word for "Melkite" is "ruumii" "Roman."

Before you all spoke Arabic, you all spoke Syriac (or Coptic). The Syriac term was Melkite--"King's Men".

Quote
The Chalcedonian and Greek Church retained a presence in Egypt (the legate from Egypt to the Seventh Ecumenical Council, the Abbot Thomsd of S. Arsenius and syncellos of the Pope of Alexandria, became in time the Archbishop of Thessalonica, recently translated from Rome to New Rome's patriarchate). In Antioch the Chalcedonians constituted the majority of the the Patriarchate. In Jerusalem, they remained the only native element of the Patriarchate.

Obviously, you do not understand the meaning of "rump".

Quote
Hardly.

When a see is dependent upon another for its financial support, and when its bishop is either nominated or appointed by the head of another see, then that see is indeed "Suffragan". For most of the time from the 7th to the 15th century, a majority of the bishops and often the patriarchs of the Chalcedonian Churches of Alexandria, Antioch and Jerusalem resided in Byzantine territory, often in Constantinople itself. A variety of Imperial writs exist commanding such bishops either to return to their sees or surrender their office.

Quote
Patriarch John of Antioch refused to blindly follow EP Michael Celarius, and tried to save Old and New Rome from their own stupidities and arrogance.

The Patriarch of Antioch in 1054 was Peter III. And Antioch had been liberated from the Arabs in 969 during the reign of Nikephoros Phokas, allowing an independent Patriarchate to be reestablished. Antioch remained independent until 1078, when the Armenians briefly took over in the wake of Manzikert. It was conquered by the Seljuk Turks in 1084. Fourteen years later, the Crusaders arrived, but did not reinstall the Orthodox Patriarch.




Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
What is the Latin Patriarchate of Jerusalem?

A titulary, as in titularies on a bull. He heads no Church, has no extraterritorial jurisdiction. He's a jackalope.

So Not a Church, merely a ritual adjunct in the East of a particular jurisdiction of a Church

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
Looking up "sui juris" in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" of just a century ago, nothing came up about such churches. Looking up "Eastern Churches" brought up this:

Not being very friendly or helpful. I can't believe you think this is a serious argument.
Not much utility in removing a mote, but the CE article can prove a tool to remove beams.

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
And you explain the mission of SS. Cyril and Methodius how?

Brought Byzantine Christianity and Byzantine culture as a turnkey operation. Again, are you being disingenuous or do you truly not understand what you are saying?
Here I must admit I don't understand what you are saying. Byzantine? Turnkey operation? Do you know what you are saying?

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
You mean the non-Chalcedonians? They went their own way two centuries before "their new Muslim overlords" showed up. But not really: witness the Henoticon, and non-Chalcedonianism at Constantinople.

Not nearly so simple as that. Suggest you do read some Orthodox historians on the subject. I can provide a reading list.
Please do so: although I read a lot under the eminent historian of the period, Prof. Walter Kaegi, one can never have too much information.

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
For over half a millenium after "their new Muslim overlords" showed up, the Greeks and Copts in the Patriarchate of Alexandria, and the Greeks, Syriacs and Arabs in the Patriarchate of Antioch had the same traditional liturgies.

Um, no.
Balsamon, the "Patriarch of Antioch" who never set foot in his patriarchate nor left Constantinople, was the one who ordered Pope Mark II, and then gave orders to those coming from the Patriarchate to see their "patriarch" were ordered to suppress their rites and adopt Constantinople's. So, um, yes, we can precisely date the suppression (note: note the abandonment) of the EO rites of Alexandria and Antioch to the decade preceding the Crusader sack of Constantinople.
The shape of the liturgy By Gregory Dix [books.google.com]

Emperor and priest: the imperial office in Byzantium By Gilbert Dagron
http://books.google.com/books?id=yC...;q=Balsamon%20Liturgy%20Mark&f=false
Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
You will have to explain what you mean by "mode of doctrinal expression."

Oh, for example, Cyrilian Christology vs. Chalcedonian Christology.
So you mean a difference that doesn't exist?

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
Btw in Arabic, the language most of us speak, the word for "Melkite" is "ruumii" "Roman."

Before you all spoke Arabic, you all spoke Syriac (or Coptic). The Syriac term was Melkite--"King's Men".
I'm aware of that, having taken Syriac for my second language of the Doctorate Exams in Near Eastern Language and Cultures at the University of Chicago. And no, a lot of use spoke Arabic: the Idumeans, Nabateans, the Palmyrans, Edessan and Hatran rulers used Aramaic and Greek as their official records, but spoke Arabic as Arabs. Starting in the 4th century, Arabic inscriptions, including Christian ones, appear all over Lebanon, Syria and Iraq.
Not to load up on links here, I've posted links to the sources and evidence here:
http://www.orthodoxchristianity.net/forum/index.php/topic,22261.0.html

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
The Chalcedonian and Greek Church retained a presence in Egypt (the legate from Egypt to the Seventh Ecumenical Council, the Abbot Thomsd of S. Arsenius and syncellos of the Pope of Alexandria, became in time the Archbishop of Thessalonica, recently translated from Rome to New Rome's patriarchate). In Antioch the Chalcedonians constituted the majority of the the Patriarchate. In Jerusalem, they remained the only native element of the Patriarchate.

Obviously, you do not understand the meaning of "rump".
No, unlike you, I also know when it is misapplied. Or would you refer to Rome as a "rump" after its fall?

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
Hardly.

When a see is dependent upon another for its financial support, and when its bishop is either nominated or appointed by the head of another see, then that see is indeed "Suffragan".
So during the "Byzantine Papacy"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byzantine_Papacy#Economic
Old Rome was hte suffragan of New Rome? The Ecumenical Patriarch is now the suffragan of the Church of Greece and now the Greek Archdiocese of America?

Originally Posted by StuartK
For most of the time from the 7th to the 15th century, a majority of the bishops and often the patriarchs of the Chalcedonian Churches of Alexandria, Antioch and Jerusalem resided in Byzantine territory, often in Constantinople itself. A variety of Imperial writs exist commanding such bishops either to return to their sees or surrender their office.
Well, you so kindly direct us to those writs so we can consider them as evidence, because you describe a situation that comes about only after the Crusaders came in until the Mamlukes came, and then after the Ottoman conquest. Because we have quite a body of evidence of the patriarchs and their Holy Synod living in their patriachates until the Crusader period.

Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
Patriarch John of Antioch refused to blindly follow EP Michael Celarius, and tried to save Old and New Rome from their own stupidities and arrogance.

The Patriarch of Antioch in 1054 was Peter III. And Antioch had been liberated from the Arabs in 969 during the reign of Nikephoros Phokas, allowing an independent Patriarchate to be reestablished. Antioch remained independent until 1078, when the Armenians briefly took over in the wake of Manzikert. It was conquered by the Seljuk Turks in 1084. Fourteen years later, the Crusaders arrived, but did not reinstall the Orthodox Patriarch.
Ah, yes, Pat. Peter, not John. But the Patriarchate didn't have to be reestablished, as it never disappeared. Pat. John IV was the patriarch resident (and tortured by the Seljuks when the Crusaders approached)in Antioch, who was exiled by the Crusaders and ended up in Constantinople, ending up in the suffragan situation you portray above.

Last edited by Irish Melkite; 02/25/11 03:20 AM.
Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Member
Offline
Member
Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Originally Posted by Peter J
A couple points regarding the links you provided.

With regard to that post on catholicexchange.com [catholicexchange.com], I believe this is the news article in question:
http://www.catholicnews.com/data/stories/cns/1004186.htm


Originally Posted by IAlmisry
Looking up "sui juris" in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" of just a century ago, nothing came up about such churches. Looking up "Eastern Churches" brought up this:

Quote
The definition of an Eastern-Rite Catholic is: A Christian of any Eastern rite in union with the pope: i.e. a Catholic who belongs not to the Roman, but to an Eastern rite.
Nihil Obstat. May 1, 1909. Remy Lafort, Censor. Imprimatur. +John M. Farley, Archbishop of New York

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05230a.htm

Hmm, a 1909 article from the Catholic Encyclopedia. If you're trying to convince us that that's not a time period we Catholics ought to be proud of ... well let's just say that many of us are already convinced. eek


I think the point he was trying to make is that Orthodox ecclesiology hasn't changed in a millenia, whereas eastern Catholic ecclesiology has fluidly changed to helpfully accommodate whatever Roman trends come blowing in the wind (Vatican II, perhaps set to those very lyrics ;), for instance). Whatever you want to say about the 1909 encyclopedia's view, at least it represents a view of eastern catholic churches that had been consistent for a few centuries rather than debated for, oh, 30 years.

Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
S
Member
Offline
Member
S
Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
Quote
I think the point he was trying to make is that Orthodox ecclesiology hasn't changed in a millenia

If he did mean that, then he'd be very, very wrong. Consider, for instance, the total inversion of the term "autocephalous".

Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
I think the point he was trying to make is that Orthodox ecclesiology hasn't changed in a millenia

If he did mean that, then he'd be very, very wrong. Consider, for instance, the total inversion of the term "autocephalous".
What "total inversion" would that be?

Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Member
Offline
Member
Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Originally Posted by StuartK
Quote
I think the point he was trying to make is that Orthodox ecclesiology hasn't changed in a millenia

If he did mean that, then he'd be very, very wrong. Consider, for instance, the total inversion of the term "autocephalous".

Can you enlighten me?

Joined: Feb 2005
Posts: 1,431
Member
Offline
Member
Joined: Feb 2005
Posts: 1,431
Originally Posted by Otsheylnik
Originally Posted by Peter J
Hmm, a 1909 article from the Catholic Encyclopedia. If you're trying to convince us that that's not a time period we Catholics ought to be proud of ... well let's just say that many of us are already convinced. eek



I think the point he was trying to make is that Orthodox ecclesiology hasn't changed in a millenia, whereas eastern Catholic ecclesiology has fluidly changed to helpfully accommodate whatever Roman trends come blowing in the wind (Vatican II, perhaps set to those very lyrics ;), for instance). Whatever you want to say about the 1909 encyclopedia's view, at least it represents a view of eastern catholic churches that had been consistent for a few centuries rather than debated for, oh, 30 years.

(emphasis added)

Interesting that you should say that ... I think that the main thing to worry about with the Catholic Encyclopedia is that the websites that host it, like catholic.com and newadvent.org (plus catholic.org and catholicity.com) are clearly not traditionalist sites. I can't say exactly what their motivation is for promoting the Catholic Encyclopedia, but there's clearly some kind of syncretism going on there.

Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
S
Member
Offline
Member
S
Joined: Nov 2001
Posts: 7,309
Likes: 2
As The Blackwell Dictionary of Eastern Christianity puts it, originally

Quote
[A]n autocephalous Church was headed by an archbishop with no suffragans, and himself holding authority directly under his patriarch as an autocephalous archbishop.

The Church of Cyprus was the classic example. Today, an autocephalous Church is a Church headed by a patriarch or metropolitan, further divided into metropolitan provinces and/or dioceses, which is absolutely self-governing and not subject to the authority of any other Church.

That notion of autocephaly has resulted in the current uncanonical and chaotic state of Orthodox ecclesiology, with the proliferation of national and even sub-national Churches all claiming autocephaly, and many with overlapping jurisdictions. It is also said that the Orthodox Church does not recognize a universal level of jurisdiction--but that also is historically incorrect.

Orthodox canonists and theologians are all agreed the current ecclesiology of the Orthodox Church is recent and not consistent with patristic norms--but Orthodox ecclesiology has not changed? Please!

Last edited by StuartK; 02/25/11 12:49 PM.
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
I
Member
Offline
Member
I
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Originally Posted by StuartK
As The Blackwell Dictionary of Eastern Christianity puts it, originally

Quote
[A]n autocephalous Church was headed by an archbishop with no suffragans, and himself holding authority directly under his patriarch as an autocephalous archbishop.

The Church of Cyprus was the classic example. Today, an autocephalous Church is a Church headed by a patriarch or metropolitan, further divided into metropolitan provinces and/or dioceses, which is absolutely self-governing and not subject to the authority of any other Church.

Wrong yet again.

The Church of Cyprus wasn't the classic example of modern Blackwell's definition, as canon 8 of Ephesus shows:

Quote
The Judgment of the same Holy Synod, pronounced on the petition presented to it by the Bishops of Cyprus:
Canon VIII.

Our brother bishop Rheginus, the beloved of God, and his fellow beloved of God bishops, Zeno and Evagrius, of the Province of Cyprus, have reported to us an innovation which has been introduced contrary to the ecclesiastical constitutions and the Canons of the Holy Apostles, and which touches the liberties of all. Wherefore, since injuries affecting all require the more attention, as they cause the greater damage, and particularly when they are transgressions of an ancient custom; and since those excellent men, who have petitioned the Synod, have told us in writing and by word of mouth that the Bishop of Antioch has in this way held ordinations in Cyprus; therefore the Rulers of the holy churches in Cyprus shall enjoy, without dispute or injury, according to the Canons of the blessed Fathers and ancient custom, the right of performing for themselves the ordination of their excellent Bishops. The same rule shall be observed in the other dioceses and provinces everywhere, so that none of the God beloved Bishops shall assume control of any province which has not heretofore, from the very beginning, been under his own hand or that of his predecessors. But if any one has violently taken and subjected [a Province], he shall give it up; lest the Canons of the Fathers be transgressed; or the vanities of worldly honour be brought in under pretext of sacred office; or we lose, without knowing it, little by little, the liberty which Our Lord Jesus Christ, the Deliverer of all men, hath given us by his own Blood. Wherefore, this holy and ecumenical Synod has decreed that in every province the rights which heretofore, from the beginning, have belonged to it, shall be preserved to it, according to the old prevailing custom, unchanged and uninjured: every Metropolitan having permission to take, for his own security, a copy of these acts. And if any one shall bring forward a rule contrary to what is here determined, this holy and ecumenical Synod unanimously decrees that it shall be of no effect.
http://www.earlychurchtexts.com/public/ephesus_canons_431.htm

So we have a church in Cyprus headed by an archbishop with suffragans, and himself holding authority directly, under no patriarch, as an autocephalous archbishop. Not at all Blackewell's definition, but the modern (and ancient) Orthodox one.

As Fr. Erikson writes

Quote
This canon, quoted here at length because of its singular interest, often has been interpreted as granting independence to the church of Cyprus, as though Cyprus formerly had been legitimately subject to Antioch. The actual wording of the canon, however, makes it obvious that the council was not granting independence to Cyprus but rather was confirming and preserving Cyprus' independence against what it regarded as the illegitimate intrusion of Antioch. Indeed the canon expressly attempts to preserve the liberties of all metropolitans and their provincial churches against innovations introduced by the supra-metropolitan powers.

The challenge of our past: studies in Orthodox Canon law and Church history By John H. Erickson.
http://books.google.com/books?id=Xg...son&cd=1#v=onepage&q&f=false

As Fr. Erikson cites, the term autocephalous is frequently used in the sense Blackwell defines it, but already in 540 it is used, e.g. Thedore the Reader writing on Cyprus' Church, in the sense approaching the current technical meaning of a self-governing, independent ecclesiastical entity.

Originally Posted by StuartK
That notion of autocephaly has resulted in the current uncanonical and chaotic state of Orthodox ecclesiology,

What "current uncanonical and chaotic state of Orthodox ecclesiology"? Can you provide details?

Originally Posted by StuartK
with the proliferation of national and even sub-national Churches all claiming autocephaly, and many with overlapping jurisdictions.

Like the four patriarchs of Antioch at Vatican II, only one of which the aftermath of Vatican II abolished? (and if you count the Catholicos of the Chaldeans with-as was historically the case-Antioch, that would be five with four still functioning with overlapping jurisdictions, five if the Latin rite parishes are under some Latin ordinary). Btw, has a decision been made about the Ruthenians vis-a-vis the UGCC?

Originally Posted by StuartK
It is also said that the Orthodox Church does not recognize a universal level of jurisdiction--but that also is historically incorrect.
.

Of course that's incorrect: we hold to all the Seven Ecumenical Councils.

Originally Posted by StuartK
Orthodox canonists and theologians are all agreed the current ecclesiology of the Orthodox Church is recent and not consistent with patristic norms--but Orthodox ecclesiology has not changed? Please!

Hate to break it to you, but you were lied to at Ravenna. Take your example of Cyprus: its status now remains the same as its status under the Fathers and indeed under the Apostles.

Do feel free to please yourself, and give us some examples of differences between the current ecclesiology of the Orthodox Church and that of the Orthodox Fathers on the Catholic Church. Be forwarned, however, that the canon 28 myth is indeed recent and not consistent with patristic norms, which is why it has been universally rejected by everyone but the Greek Church.

Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Member
Offline
Member
Joined: Jan 2006
Posts: 848
Fair points I suppose, though I would distinguish them from the changes the eastern catholics have gone through as the Orthodox are still in a state of aspiring to have a church inconformity with first millenium canonical norms (Met Philip excepted maybe), which is unfortunately in a dilapidated state. The ECs on the other hand are still trying to work out exactly what canonical norms govern them since the changes of VII and the 1970s, which is a different thing entirely.

Page 7 of 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Moderated by  Irish Melkite 

Link Copied to Clipboard
The Byzantine Forum provides message boards for discussions focusing on Eastern Christianity (though discussions of other topics are welcome). The views expressed herein are those of the participants and may or may not reflect the teachings of the Byzantine Catholic or any other Church. The Byzantine Forum and the www.byzcath.org site exist to help build up the Church but are unofficial, have no connection with any Church entity, and should not be looked to as a source for official information for any Church. All posts become property of byzcath.org. Contents copyright - 1996-2024 (Forum 1998-2023). All rights reserved.
Powered by UBB.threads™ PHP Forum Software 7.7.5