Dear Asian Pilgrim,

That is why I would like to dive into the Hebrew and the word "violence" which sounds like Hamas, and try to understand if God was condoning violence.

At this moment as I understand it, the word "hamas" in Isaiah 53:9 refers to a specific type of violence, one which is unjust. I also take it that the word "kill" from the commandment refers to an unjust taking of life, and that it especially refers to murder.

I am ignorant of Hebrew beyond what has been pointed out to me from scholars and teachers. But if "Violence is incompatible with the nature of God and the nature of the soul" then how can certain cities be doomed by God's command?

Was God asking the Israelis to commit "violence"? Which word in Hebrew is associated with that action of Israel?

If the word is not the Hebrew "violence" or "kill” then does the chosen word help clarify the matter? Does the LXX clear up what looks to be a paradox?

You asked how the Fathers approach that question; they can surely help us come to understand.

Sorry if I repeat myself, I am trying to be quick with my Internet use at work.

Terry