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Joined: Jul 2002
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Just a little post to my Eastern Catholic family. I have been wondering how you and all of christendom sans the Othodox church proper, can celebrate Pascha prior to passover? Unlike Christmas which we can only speculate on the acutual date and the Dec. 25 date was made to combat the pagan holiday of the Sun, we KNOW when Easter was. So, what's up with that?
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As an Orthodox Christian, I'd like to point out that A) this has been very frequently dicussed before on theis forum, and B) MANY Byzantine Catholics celebrate with the Orthodox on our dating of Pascha and C) Some Orthodox celebrate with the West (ie: Finland)
Gaudior, just muddying the waters a bit
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Athanasius,
Actually the way of calculating the date Passover by the Jews has changed since the time of Christ. Also even then not all the Jews celebrated Passover together, the Essenes had a different calculation and some scholars speculate that this is the reason for the discrepancy between the Synoptics and St. John's Gospel as related to timing of Passover and Our Lord's Passion. They claim that Christ celebrated the Essene Passover with his Apostles. But I digress.
The vernal equinox is the key and the Jewish and Julian calculations no longer reflect the time of the actual vernal equinox.
Fr. Deacon Lance
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Originally posted by Deacon Lance: The vernal equinox is the key and the Jewish and Julian calculations no longer reflect the time of the actual vernal equinox.
Dear Deacon Lance, What does the Jewish calculation reflect then? Tony
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Tony,
I'm sorry I don't know the complete explanation, only the the Gregorian Paschalion is the only one based on the actual physical vernal equinox. Please don't misunderstand, I have no doctrinal issue with the dating of Pascha, but I do feel that the Fathers of Nicea made their decision based on the best science available to them and that we should do the same.
Fr. Deacon Lance
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There is a good article about this subject on the World Council of Churches website. See: Towards a Common Date for Easter [ wcc-coe.org] . Excerpt: �Originally passover was celebrated on the first full moon after the March equinox, but in the 3rd century the day of the feast came to be calculated by some Jewish communities without reference to the equinox, thus causing passover to be celebrated twice in some solar years. Nicea tried to avoid this by linking the principles for the dating of Easter/Pascha to the norms for the calculation of passover during Jesus' lifetime.�The Julian method of calculating Pascha doesn�t always place Pascha immediately after Passover (calculated according to it�s modern Jewish formula). In years like 2002 and 2016 Julian Pascha falls more than a month after the Jewish Passover.
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In years like 2002 and 2016 Julian Pascha falls more than a month after the Jewish Passover. But it is still AFTER! Yours, hal
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Originally posted by Deacon Lance: Tony,
I'm sorry I don't know the complete explanation, only the the Gregorian Paschalion is the only one based on the actual physical vernal equinox. Please don't misunderstand, I have no doctrinal issue with the dating of Pascha, but I do feel that the Fathers of Nicea made their decision based on the best science available to them and that we should do the same.
Fr. Deacon Lance Dear Deacon Lance, Perhaps I did not express my question well. I am merely curious what the basis for the calculation of the modern Passover among the Jews is. T
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