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Here is a New Online Orthodox Catechism from the Russian Orthodox Church (MP) Representation to the European Institutions Website I printed the whole thing out. It is rather good. Here it is: http://www.orthodoxeurope.org/catechism/000001.php
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I would caution you on at least two sections that I reviewed. First, the section on "consequences of Adam's sin" is a bit muddled. He even mistranslates "in sin [should be 'sins'] did my mother conceive me" from an Orthodox POV. Bishop Hilarion seems to teeter between a Western and truly Orthodox understanding of this crucial issue.
The same goes for "redemption." Although he mentions that there were different theories posited by several Fathers, he never seems to quite get to the point, which is that Christ's sacrifice was simply offered to the Reality of the situation, not to God the Father (for He never demanded it, although He accepted it) and certainly not to the Devil.
Of course, the whole thing could be just a bad translation from the Russian. I hope so.
Priest Thomas
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Slava Isusu Christu!
Father, bless.
Dear Father Thomas:
Please give me a head's up if you find anything else wrong with it. I would be interested to know.
Thank you.
Father, bless.
In Christ,
Robert
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Originally posted by Fr. Thomas: The same goes for "redemption." Although he mentions that there were different theories posited by several Fathers, he never seems to quite get to the point, which is that Christ's sacrifice was simply offered to the Reality of the situation, not to God the Father (for He never demanded it, although He accepted it) and certainly not to the Devil. Barekhmor! Dear Father Thomas, When you say this, what does it mean? Admittedly, I am not as sharp on these crucial points of Orthodox theology as I want to be. You say that the sacrifice of Christ was offered to the "Reality of the situation", but how can sacrifice be offered to a situation or its reality? Or did you capitalise the R in reality for a reason? You say that the Father never demanded the sacrifice of Christ, but He did accept it. So the sacrifice was offered to the Father, but not of necessity? But a little before that you say that the sacrifice was not offered to God the Father. Please help me to understand this.
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Dear Robert, Call me Latinized if you like, but I much prefer St Peter Mohyla's Catechism or else that of St John Damascus. In the latter case, you certainly could NOT call me "Latinized." The Orthodox catechetical works produced by the OCA here are best as there is no room for problems with translations etc. Fr. Thomas is quite correct about the issue of transliteration. The monastic communities of the Desert, while translating the Liturgy into their languages, would leave the Canon in the original Greek for fear of mistranslating something etc. Even the English translation of "mercy" from "pomiluj" or "eleison" loses a lot of the original meaning. Alex
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Originally posted by Mor Ephrem: Barekhmor!
When you say this, what does it mean? Bshem abo wabro wrooho qadee-sho had aloho shareero, ameen! I'll quote from a passage written by Fr. Thomas Hopko, but I suspect you would do well to read the entire writing on "redemption" at http://www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Redemption.html: In the history of Christian doctrine there has been great debate over the question of to whom Christ "pays the price" for the ransom of the world and the salvation of mankind. Some have said that the "payment" was made to the devil. This is the view that the devil received certain "rights" over man and his world because of man's sin. In his rebellion against God, man "sold himself to the devil" thus allowing the Evil One to become the "prince of this world" (Jn 12:31). Christ comes to pay the debt to the devil and to release man from his control by sacrificing Himself upon the cross.
Others say that Christ's "payment" on behalf of man had to be made to God the Father. This is the view which interprets Christ's sacrificial death on the cross as the proper punishment that had to be paid to satisfy God's wrath over the human race. God was insulted by man's sin. His law was broken and His righteousness was offended. Man had to pay the penalty for his sin by offering the proper punishment. But no amount of human punishment could satisfy God's justice because God's justice is divine. Thus the Son of God had to be born into the world and receive the punishment that was rightly to be placed on men. He had to die in order for God to receive proper satisfaction for man's offenses against Him. Christ substituted Himself on our behalf and died for our sins, offering His blood as the satisfying sacrifice for the sins of the world. By dying on the cross in place of sinful man, Christ pays the full and total payment for man's sins. God's wrath is removed. Man's insult is punished. The world is reconciled with its Creator.
Commenting on this question about to whom Christ "pays the price" for man's salvation, St. Gregory the Theologian in the fourth century wrote the following in his second Easter Oration:
Now we are to examine another fact and dogma, neglected by most people, but in my judgment well worth enquiring into. To whom was that Blood offered that was shed for us, and why was It shed? I mean the precious and famous Blood of our God and High Priest and Sacrifice. We were detained in bondage by the Evil One, sold under sin, and receiving pleasure in exchange for wickedness. Now, since a ransom belongs only to him who holds in bondage, I ask to whom was this offered, and for what cause?
If to the Evil One, fie upon the outrage! If the robber receives ransom, not only from God, but a ransom which consists of God Himself, and has such an illustrious payment for his tyranny, then it would have been right for him to have left us alone altogether!
But if to God the Father, I ask first, how? For it was not by Him that we were being oppressed. And next, on what principle did the Blood of His only-begotten Son delight the Father, who would not receive even Isaac, when he was being sacrificed by his father, [Abraham,] but changed the sacrifice by putting a ram in the place of the human victim? (See Gen 22).
Is it not evident that the Father accepts Him, but neither asked for Him nor demanded Him; but on account of the incarnation, and because Humanity must be sanctified by the Humanity of God, that He might deliver us Himself, and overcome the tyrant (i.e., the devil) and draw us to Himself by the mediation of His Son who also arranged this to the honor of the Father, whom it is manifest He obeys in all things.
In Orthodox theology generally it can be said that the language of "payment" and "ransom" is rather understood as a metaphorical and symbolical way of saying that Christ has done all things necessary to save and redeem mankind enslaved to the devil, sin and death, and under the wrath of God. He "paid the price," not in some legalistic or juridical or economic meaning. He "paid the price" not to the devil whose rights over man were won by deceit and tyranny. He "paid the price" not to God the Father in the sense that God delights in His sufferings and received "satisfaction" from His creatures in Him. He "paid the price" rather, we might say, to Reality Itself. He "paid the price" to create the conditions in and through which man might receive the forgiveness of sins and eternal life by dying and rising again in Him to newness of life (See Rom 5-8; Gal 2-4). Priest Thomas
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Originally posted by Fr. Thomas: Bshem abo wabro wrooho qadee-sho had aloho shareero, ameen! Barekhmor! What do you know? He can discuss the finer points of theology and he can do so in Syriac! Thanks, Father, for the link to the article; I will try to digest that slowly and see if I have any questions later.
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Dear Friends,
Fr. John Meyendorff (+memory eternal!) also maintained that the Western view of Soteriology here was also valid - and was actually very "handy" when dealing with Arianism.
While certainly reflecting the Western religious outlook, it introduced a sense of "necessity" for the Divine Incarnation in doing battle with the Arians who, of course, maintained that Christ was "more than man, but less than God."
The Eastern Fathers, however, were never tied to this Western sense of "necessity" in terms of establishing a reason why the Son of God "had" to become Man etc.
The Eastern Fathers would maintain that God would have become Man in Christ even if Adam had not sinned in Eden.
So why would God become Man if Adam had never sinned? It would be because it is in God's Nature to give of Himself totally to us which He did in Christ and to allow us to participate in His Divine Life, whether or not we had sinned.
Alex
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Originally posted by Mor Ephrem: What do you know? He can discuss the finer points of theology and he can do so in Syriac!
Actually, it's the wonders of copying and pasting from the internet.  I was going to respond in Arabic (my wife is half Lebanese, half Syrian, and I served in Antiochian parishes for about six years) but I saw in your profile that your interest lies in Syriac theology, so, there ya go! I also have a (former) Nestorian in my parish, so I try to keep up on all this stuff. PT
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Bless me a sinner, Father Thomas!
With respect to the Nestorians, I understand that a Russian missionary in the 19th century brought a section of the Assyrian Church of the East into communion with the Russian Orthodox Church and that they were called "Assyrian Orthodox."
Were they allowed to keep their Assyrian liturgical rite?
Kissing your right hand, I again implore your blessing,
Alex
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Originally posted by Orthodox Catholic: Bless me a sinner, Father Thomas!
With respect to the Nestorians, I understand that a Russian missionary in the 19th century brought a section of the Assyrian Church of the East into communion with the Russian Orthodox Church and that they were called "Assyrian Orthodox."
Were they allowed to keep their Assyrian liturgical rite?
May the Lord God bless you. I'm unaware of this, but I will have to research it. It may well be true. I know that there are Assyrian churches in Moscow, but I do not think they are in communion with the Moscow Patriarchate. A Google search does reveal an "Assyrian Orthodox Church of Antioch" which seems not to be affiliated with the Assyrian Church of the East. (Are these the "Jacobites"? They, of course, are not in communion with Orthodoxy.) PT
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Bless me a sinner, Father Thomas!
Yes, they are indeed Jacobites - and I met one of their priests at a conference some years back.
I came across the reference to the Assyrians in communion with Moscow in a ROC book "The Orthodox Church of Russia" that comes replete with the most beautiful photographs!
Alex
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Bless me a sinner, Father Mark!
How wonderful!
So the Assyrians who joined the Russian Church were still called "Orthodox Assyrians!"
I would imagine that their liturgical Rite would be Byzantine rather than an Orthodox remake of the Assyrian Rite.
There is an Anglican bishop living not too far from me who participates regularly in Assyrian Qurbonos as his church has an "intercommunion" agreement with the Church of the East.
Alex
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More good information on the entrance of the Assyrian Church of the East into the Russian Orthodox Church... (This is cross posted with permission from a forum that I moderate, OCA-Clergy, a forum for clergy of the OCA, and a well-spring of knowledge...) Yes, the Diocese of Urmia of the Assyrian Church was united to the Orthodox Church in the 1890s. Mar Yonan and a number of his clergy went to St Petersburg and in the Alexander Nevsky Lavra they were vested at the Liturgy for the Annunciation. The Synodal choir sang the Trisagion and some other pieces in Syriac. The mission flourished, even if the impetus was largely political - protection from Turks ad Persians - and in spite of competing Anglican and Presbyterian missionary activities. When the Mar Yonan and his clergy went baqck to Urmia, assisted by Russian priests they visited every community and united the Assyrian faithful to Orthodoxy. They wee permitted to keep their Assyrian baptismal names, and they were permitted to keep their entire liturgical rite - with references to Nestorius and related Nestorian worthies deleted. (This is basically the Liturgy Addai and Mari, with numerous anaphoras, belonging to the East Syrian liturgical tradition). There are descendents of this mission scattered around the world. I met one in London, Ontario in a hospital in 1983,and took him Communion. The last bishop for this group died in the 1960s in Chicago (I think), and was part of the Church Abroad.
One good source for info are the relevant chapters in *The Church of the East and the Church of England: A History of the Archbishop of Canterbury's Assyrian Mission* by J. F. Coakley.
If you do an advanced search on Google, typing in Urmia and under exact phrase Russian Orthodox you will find a fair bit of stuff. Somewhere I have a description of the reception of the Assyrian clergy published in a contemporary Russian journal.
The mid-19th century up through the Revolution was really an exciting period in Russian Orthodox missions, beginning with North America and the Russian Far East, Siberia, the Altai, and with activity in Ethiopia, throughout the Middle East, in Persia, in Japan, in India. Priest Thomas
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