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Absolutely. The outcome of the Enlightenment is seen as anthropocentric, diametrically opposed to Byzantine concepts of communion and theosis which are theocentric.

Also, as more recent reinforcement, the direct connection between Marx and the Enlightenment and the ensuing attack of Communism to Orthodoxy makes the Enlightenment even more suspect with its separation of faith from reason in the eyes of Byzantine Christians. For the Enlightenment, viewed from a Byzantine perspective, man is enlightened by his own reason, not from God or the indwelling of His Holy Spirit.

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For the Enlightenment ... man is enlightened by his own reason, not from God or the indwelling of His Holy Spirit
"not" or and"
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the Enlightenment is seen as anthropocentric, diametrically opposed to Byzantine concepts ... which are theocentric.
Diametrically opposed or complementary? Or synergystic? Are the two commandments of Christ opposed, complementary, or synergistic? Are the criteria He spoke about our being judged antropocentric, theocentric, or both.

Is Byzantine Christianity un-enculturatable in Western civilization? Does it imply a disregard for, and, at some level a revolt against the achievements of Western civilization?

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And is the Enlightenment considered an intrinsically bad development in Byzantine eyes?
Just to remind you, (above), your initial question had to do with the Enlightenment as seen through Byzantine perspectives and not its effect on Western Christianity nor its ramifications of inculturation. I answered it as such as a Byzantine Christian.

Your response brings up tangents not present in your initial question. I fail to see how Kant, Hegel, and later devotees such as Marx could even remotely be considered synergistic with St. Symeon the New Theologian, St. Gregory Palamas, Cabisilas, etc. confused nor how this relates to Our Lord's commandments of love.

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Is Byzantine Christianity un-enculturatable in Western civilization? Does it imply a disregard for, and, at some level a revolt against the achievements of Western civilization?
I am unsure what to make of this nor how it relates to your initial question, which had to do with the Byzantine perspective of the Enlightenment and not the "achievments of Western civilization".

The Byzantine Empire was the Roman Empire of the East and as such is generally considered part of "Western Civlization". The inculturation of Byzantine Christianity in Eastern Europe and later North America speak for its ability to do so. Are you reducing the achievements of Western civilization to the Enlightment? confused This discussion seems to be taking a circular path.

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