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Even though the changes seem little and insignificant, and will escape the notice of many, what is involved in the neutered language is an alteration in the consciousness of Catholics and a feminizing of their consciences.
This has been the intention of The International Commission on English in the Liturgy since 1975, says Mrs. Hitchcock.
This intention for altering traditional customs comes from a small segment of women who are incontrovertible haters of men, such as the radical theologian at Boston College, Mary Daly, and the lesbian theologian Mary Hunt.


Here is another reference to lesbians. It apparently comes from Helen Hitchcock the Editor of "Adoremus," a well respected Roman Rite publication on the liturgy. Cardinal Arinze recently visited the Adoremus' office here in the United States.

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Originally Posted by lm
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Even though the changes seem little and insignificant, and will escape the notice of many, what is involved in the neutered language is an alteration in the consciousness of Catholics and a feminizing of their consciences.
This has been the intention of The International Commission on English in the Liturgy since 1975, says Mrs. Hitchcock.
This intention for altering traditional customs comes from a small segment of women who are incontrovertible haters of men, such as the radical theologian at Boston College, Mary Daly, and the lesbian theologian Mary Hunt.
Here is another reference to lesbians. It apparently comes from Helen Hitchcock the Editor of "Adoremus," a well respected Roman Rite publication on the liturgy. Cardinal Arinze recently visited the Adoremus' office here in the United States.
That is the problem with inclusive language. The originators mean well but wind up neutering the masculine to favor the feminine. They do it under guise of equality of the sexes. Since women have been mistreated in the past Christians buy into it without thought. Then they attempt to push it within the Church giving reasons of loving one another and tolerance. They don't realize the damage it inflicts on the very core of orthodox Christian anthropology. Praise God the Vatican will have none of it. Now if we could just convince our bishops to follow the Vatican. Or ask the Vatican to direct them to be faithful.

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Originally Posted by lm
Rome has said that anthropos should be translated correctly. When Rome said that, it did not appear to be saying something particularly Roman, but it seemed as if it were addressing a universal truth that the Church ought not let the secular world define its liturgical language.

So what is the correct translation of "anthropos" that Rome said we should use? And I'm assuming that Rome gave us the correct English word too? Mother may I?

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I don't understand this strong push for appeal to what Rome has said. Constantly on these boards I see Rome's involvement in eastern affairs being excoriated. I think it is much more important what other easterners have said. I will start a thread on that.

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Originally Posted by ByzKat
Monomakh,

Pardon me, but you posted that as of June 29, the Litany of the Catechumens would be forbidden - yet it's in the new books. (It is NOT in the 1978 book we are currently using.)

As of June 29, the service book will direct that at certain points (where most of my fellow parishioners currently kneel), that the proper posture is to stand. (Our current book directs us to kneel.) This will probably cause some local controversy. Should I advise people to resist?

The bishops have directed the clergy

(a) not to celebrate daily Divine Liturgies during the Great Fast
(b) regularly celebrate the Liturgy of the Presanctified Gifts during the Great Fast
(c) end the practice of withholding Communion till the age of reason, and commune children immediately after baptism
(d) to install iconostases where they are not present

At the Uniontown pilgrimage, we're now seeing Matins celebrated daily, and last year, compline was added, and the Sisters asked that the Jesus Prayer be sung (to a Galician melody used for the Prayer) over the sound system on the grounds, INSTEAD of the start of the rosary which was taking place, and a number of talks were presented on the use of the Jesus Prayer.

Matins and Vespers? We now have texts with music, which were at best available only in fragmentary fashion in the past. Rubrical and textual errors in the Uniontown books were corrected in the MCI books, and a number of parishes are using them. I personally would have preferred continuing to use "Lover of Mankind", but in this case we accepted the bishops' direction (as Brother Maximos insisted back in the 1990's was a prerequisite if we expected God to bless our efforts to reintroduce these services).

As far as "Mass", rosaries, etc., all the impetus for this I've seen is coming from parish tradition, and not from the bishops, the liturgical or music commissions, or a majority of the clergy.

Finally, I haven't been to a Divine Liturgy under an hour since the 1990's, when Metropolitan Judson started ordering restoration of the litanies that used to be omitted throughout. As the Administrator has pointed out here, NO ONE has suggested a Divine Liturgy should be "under an hour."

My point above was that your complaints are not strengthened by either misrepresenting the liturgical changes, or by accusing the bishops or clergy of being in support of Latinizations like statues, kneeling at inappropriate times, etc.

Yours in Christ,
Jeff

Jeff,

When I post on here it's in between doing work and responding to e-mails for work. I incorrectly wrote Litany of the Catechumens, I should have wrote minimal 3 verse antiphons in my litanty of items that were now forbidden. But hey, I typed it wrong. I'll be a man, er I mean human, and say I wrote it wrong plain and simple. You're right it's in the new books. I should have typed it right.

But you can't seriously contest and give me a reason why 90%+ of our churches in Parma and Pittsburgh don't celebrate Vespers (no Vespers with Liturgy doesn't count) or Matins. And don't hide behind that some priests have to serve multiple parishes. Because then you have to answer why priests that have only one parish are and will get away with no Vespers or Matins. You know as well as I do that these services should be taking place. Why doesn't our leadership enforce this? You don't really think that having Matins for 3-4 days in Uniontown is the quota for the year for all of our eprachies do you? Is pastoral sensitivity the reason because these are Traditoinal practices?

I'll go back to the practice of not kneeling on Sundays, which is done at the Cathedral in Parma. I guess we'll see if it is obeyed per the new books (what color are they so we can call them red book, etc.?) If not, then can Traditional parishes do 3 verse antiphons and little litanies? How much leeway is allowed?

You didn't even touch upon the fact that the beautiful fasting cycles that we have in our Tradition are basically ignored. Where are the directives from our leaders regarding Traditional fasting? I've never even heard a rumour of the Dormition Fast for example being practiced.

How is it that the overwhelmingly vast majority of people go to communion on Sundays, yet confessions are minimal. Must be some holy people in our rite. This was one of the items that I wrote previously that should be enforced.

Speaking of confessions, what is a confessional doing at the cathedral in Parma? (left hand side in the back when you walk in)

You haven't seen a liturgy done in under an hour? Go to St. Mary's in Cleveland on a Sunday. 45 minutes tops. I swear to you.

Go to Holy Ghost in Cleveland, around 55 minutes.

Go to St. Gregory's in Lakewood, OH. 50 minutes.

Go to St. Joseph's in Brecksville, OH. 50 minutes.

many more if you want to hear.

suggesting that a liturgy should be under an hour and consistently week after week having them under an hour are two different things. The admin would be correct that no ones advocating this, but action speaks louder than words. It's going on.

Proskomedia is something we could talk about at length. Hopefully it will be practiced the right way in every parish now. I certainly wouldn't bet my life on it, but it would be nice if it happened.

Bykat wrote:
"My point above was that your complaints are not strengthened by either misrepresenting the liturgical changes, or by accusing the bishops or clergy of being in support of Latinizations like statues, kneeling at inappropriate times, etc."

When every single time that I've ever gone to the Cathedral in Parma my whole entire life and the people there kneel, what am I supposed to think about the bishop and/or clergy supporting this practice? Have I ever seen a memo by one of our bishops and/or clergy encouraging kneeling at inappropiate times? No.
But come on, it goes on there, plain and simple. Maybe it will change June 29? We'll see.

But many parishes that have a priest all to themselves don't have to wait until June 29th to begin having Vespers and Matins. What date will that start?

Monomakh

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Originally Posted by John K
Originally Posted by lm
Rome has said that anthropos should be translated correctly. When Rome said that, it did not appear to be saying something particularly Roman, but it seemed as if it were addressing a universal truth that the Church ought not let the secular world define its liturgical language.
So what is the correct translation of "anthropos" that Rome said we should use? And I'm assuming that Rome gave us the correct English word too? Mother may I?
The correct translation of "anthropos" in the Creed is "man" and "men." "Who for us men and for our salvation." "and He became man." Rome has clearly stated this.

Mother may I?

Are you saying that it is anti-Eastern for Rome to require that translations be accurate?

Are you saying that it is authentically Eastern to be inaccurate?

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So what is the correct translation of "anthropos" that Rome said we should use? And I'm assuming that Rome gave us the correct English word too? Mother may I?


Man (s) -- Men (pl).

For us men, God became man.

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Originally Posted by 1 Th 5:21
Originally Posted by John K
Originally Posted by lm
Rome has said that anthropos should be translated correctly. When Rome said that, it did not appear to be saying something particularly Roman, but it seemed as if it were addressing a universal truth that the Church ought not let the secular world define its liturgical language.
So what is the correct translation of "anthropos" that Rome said we should use? And I'm assuming that Rome gave us the correct English word too? Mother may I?
The correct translation of "anthropos" in the Creed is "man" and "men." "Who for us men and for our salvation." "and He became man." Rome has clearly stated this.

Mother may I?

Are you saying that it is anti-Eastern for Rome to require that translations be accurate?

Are you saying that it is authentically Eastern to be inaccurate?

Sorry but I haven't had time to reply before this. I believe and again, I've not had time to find the quote, but it's been shown that "anthropos" can mean either human being or man. I haven't seen any document coming out of Rome, that says for English speakers anthropos must be translated as "man." If you can show me that I'll eat crow. And also, let's not forget, Rome it was that approved this translation.

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Check here for the specific directive not to translate "for us and our salvation...

The middle term is that anthropos and homos are equivalents:

http://www.adoremus.org/CDW-ICELtrans.html

Quote
III. Examples of problems related to questions of "inclusive language" and of the use of masculine and feminine terms

A. In an effort to avoid completely the use of the term "man" as a translation of the Latin homo, the translation often fails to convey the true content of that Latin term, and limits itself to a focus on the congregation actually present or to those presently living. The simultaneous reference to the unity and the collectivity of the human race is lost. The term "humankind", coined for purposes of "inclusive language", remains somewhat faddish and ill-adapted to the liturgical context, and, in addition, it is usually too abstract to convey the notion of the Latin homo. The latter, just as the English "man", which some appear to have made the object of a taboo, are able to express in a collective but also concrete and personal manner the notion of a partner with God in a Covenant who gratefully receives from him the gifts of forgiveness and Redemption. At least in many instances, an abstract or binomial expression cannot achieve the same effect.

B. In the Creed, which has unfortunately also maintained the first-person plural "We believe" instead of the first-person singular of the Latin and of the Roman liturgical tradition, the above-mentioned tendency to omit the term "men" has effects that are theologically grave. This text �"For us and for our salvation"-no longer clearly refers to the salvation of all, but apparently only that of those who are present. The "us" thereby becomes potentially exclusive rather than inclusive.


Also see LA at paragaphs 30 and 32

http://www.adoremus.org/liturgiamauthenticam.html#anchor6319598

One of problems with the translation "for us humans He became human" is, of course it leaves out the fact that He became man ie, male, the spouse of His Bride, the Church.

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The creed in Latin does say "et homo factus est." "Homo" is man, meaning a male, if that were translated as "human" I'd have a real problem! wink Thanks for the quote. That leads me to ask, "why did Rome approve the creed as translated in the Ruthenian liturgy then?" Something's not right. Who wrote the "Observations on the English-language Translation of the Roman Missal?" Was that Cardinal Estevez?

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John,

If "homo" means man means male (ie. the "male" part is important), then you have to explain how the "homines" in the earlier phrase

Qui propter nos h�mines

does NOT mean males. It doesn't, of course, but the fact that "homo" / "man" is "overloaded" - carries two different senses - is part of the problem. The Church COULD have emphasized Christ's maleness - called him a "vir" - but chose to emphasize His humanity by using "homo".

Yours in Christ,
Jeff Mierzejewski

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C'mon Jeff,

You're wrong. Homines does mean males...and females, adults and children. In fact it includes all of mankind, even those not yet conceived.

That homo, anthropos, man have several meanings is not the problem, but the VERY ESSENCE of why they are useful terms.

Homo is what is used in the Latin Vulgate in Ephesians...A man (anthropos, homo) shall leave his father and mother.... THE AMBIGUITY, IN ANTHROPOS AND HOMO, IS PRECISELY WHY "MAN" IS THE RIGHT TRANSLATION. Its meaning is more complete and concrete than "human being." It is INCARNATIONAL. To being a human being is not some ethereal Platonic essence--it is to be a flesh and blood man or woman.

ECCE HOMO - BEHOLD THE human being? BUNK!

But again, they're not even translating anthropos. Why? I think I've suggested several answers.


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Dear lm,

That's my point on the issue of "inclusive language" and the Creed. I agree with you that the omission is precisely the problem.

But John (above) seemed to be confusing "homo" and "vir", as if "homo" OBVIOUSLY implied maleness. The same argument that "man" obviously implies maleness, and "human being" is inappropriate because it doesn't, ends up allowing secular feminists to say "And that is what makes 'for us men' inexact."

My problem is not with the conclusion, but with the argumentation in the post I was responding to - it concedes way too much to so-called "gender feminists."

Jeff

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lm,

You aren't making any sense here. You are stating that anthropos can mean males or males and females but the only correct way to translate it is men. I agree references to Christ should be translated as man because one does not simply become human but must be either man or woman. However, anthropos may correctly be translated as humans. Now, the cardinals in Rome may not like that translation but keep in mind these are the same cardinals that don't like us having married priests either.

I agree it should not have been skipped. You can leave it as men (which is my preference) or change it to humans (I don't like it but can't see that it is wrong despite what the cardinals say.

What I can not agree with is running to Rome to have them force our bishops to reverse their decision because next time it might be the Latin bishops running to Rome to try and get them to force us to stop ordaining married agaian now that one of our bishops has resumed doing so.

We should be consulting with our fellow Greek Catholics but I think the days of Rome micro-managing us need to be over.

Fr. Deacon Lance


My cromulent posts embiggen this forum.
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I must not understand what you're saying.

Homo, anthropos and man all do imply maleness (ecce homo), but also something broader than maleness, because these terms don't necessarily exclude women or children, those yet conceived, or dead.

Agreed?

I just thought John K's response was a revelation as to why he would not say "for us humans beings, he became a human being." That is incomplete.

Remember, however, Valeris Karras would have us translate it that way. Her scholarship requires turning a blind eye to passages like that in Ephesians.

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