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Originally Posted by aramis
Peter:
yes, the Ancient Church of the East, a pre-reformation schism of the Assyrian Church of the East. They also have episcopal offices passed by familial inheritance.

At least according to Wikipedia this schism comes from 1964. My understanding of the hereditary succession earlier is similar to Fr Ambrose's.

Originally Posted by aramis
Further, St. Peter himself was married, as were several others of the 12. Several bishops in the various churches in the early years of the church were married.
Yes, but I think we're not sure whether they were not obliged to continence.

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Rev. Father,

The Roman Deacon has faculties to bless; so do some non-byzantine EC deacons. It's an automatic faculty in the Roman church; it's a specific additional faculty in some EC churches.

In the case you extracted, the deacon isn't appointed on a case-by-case, but has general and standing faculties to perform weddings.

If no priest (Catholic or Orthodox) is available, however, it's licit, since any two witnesses can stand in, but still not blessed. Next priest they see, it gets blessed, that gets annotated, and the sacrament is fulfilled in completeness and fully licit.

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I personally know of a case of where 2 Bezpopovtsy were received back into the Church, their marriage by their Starosta was regularized by the priest with a simple prayer and blessing at the front of the Church after Liturgy.

Alexandr

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Originally Posted by aramis
Rev. Father,

The Roman Deacon has faculties to bless; so do some non-byzantine EC deacons. It's an automatic faculty in the Roman church; it's a specific additional faculty in some EC churches..

The CCEO which speaks of a bishop or priest being "present" and "blessing" a marriage is using weasel words since it quite obscures the fact that the priest is the minister of the marriage. Perhaps the intention is the eventual eradication of the Eastern theology which requires a priest not as a witness nor as a "blessor" but as the necessary minister? Thus Eastern matrimonial theology would be displaced by Western.

A deacon can no more officiate at a marriage than he can change bread and wine at a Eucharist or give absolution in Confession.

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Goodness, the Eschaton is upon us! Father Ambrose and I agree.

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The CCEO is a general canonical text written by the Roman Church generalizing for ALL Eastern Churches - Byzantine, Oriental, Assyrian, etc.

The particular autonomous Catholic Churches are supposed to come up with their own Canons which pertain to their specifics, which update, correct, or omit the generalizations within the CCEO.


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Originally Posted by StuartK
Goodness, the Eschaton is upon us! Father Ambrose and I agree.

That is very gracious of you, Stuart, but let's not make it a precedent!! grin smile laugh

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Originally Posted by Logos - Alexis
It would be news to me to learn that Eastern Catholics believe Latin Rite Catholics married by a deacon are in fact fornicators.

The "law" argument works better.

When an Eastern Catholic and a Roman Catholic are "married" by a deacon, an annulment will issue, as there is not a valid marriage.

However, those in an invalid marriage are not generally seen as fornicators.

Originally Posted by babochka
Do Eastern Catholic churches permit a dispensation for Eastern Catholics to be married to a baptized non-Catholic in a Protestant service?

Given that the marriage by a Roman Catholic deacon wouldn't be valid, I don't see how this possibly could be . . .


Originally Posted by Irish Melkite
The reference is to the exercise of oekonomia in danger of death or instances of being without recourse to pastoral care for a protracted time (the Canon says a month, but I doubt one could find a place in the world today where it would be impossible to find a presbyter for a month - with the possible exception of Antarctica).

I rather doubt that anyone has been able to legitimately invoke a need to seek use of this oekonomia since WWII prison camps were liberated.

China

hawk


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