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Wenura Ravindu
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Original Post (Thread Starter)
#422722 09/15/2022 5:12 PM
by Wenura Ravindu
Wenura Ravindu
How do we interpret canon 6 of the first council of Nicea?

"Let the ancient customs in Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis prevail, that the Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these, since the like is customary for the Bishop of Rome also. Likewise in Antioch and the other provinces, let the Churches retain their privileges. And this is to be universally understood, that if any one be made bishop without the consent of the Metropolitan, the great Synod has declared that such a man ought not to be a bishop. If, however, two or three bishops shall from natural love of contradiction, oppose the common suffrage of the rest, it being reasonable and in accordance with the ecclesiastical law, then let the choice of the majority prevail."
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#422723 Sep 15th a 05:47 PM
by San Nicolas
San Nicolas
This was during a time when the only Metropolitans were the Bishops of Rome, Antioch, and Alexandria, the so called Petrine sees.

My take would be that the election of a bishop depends on 1) consent of the primate and 2) majority vote of the fellow bishops within an ecclesiastical province.

I suppose this is why even though some eastern churches allow laity and clergy to participate in elections of bishops, the council or synod of bishops still has the final vote on the matter.
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