www.byzcath.org
This question seems to be popular lately. For those who are canonically Eastern Catholic of what ever Partricular Church tradition, do you feel the need to accept all Roman Catholic Dogma to exist? Feel free to explain you answer in detail.

Ung
Hi,

Since dogma is divinely revealed doctrine, considered essential for salvation, the answer would be:

All Catholics, regardless of their liturgical tradition, are obliged to accept all which the Catholic Church teaches to be dogma.

Therefore, there is no such thing as Roman Catholic Dogma. Catholic Dogma is simply Catholic (sans the Roman qualifier).

The real difference is not about which dogma to accept, rather, it is about which doctrines are actually dogmatic in nature.

Shalom,
Memo
yes, I have thought about this matter myself. if Eastern Catholics in communion with the Holy See have our own theology as well as our canon law and Liturgy, how and why does accepting Roman theology work for us?
Much Love,
Jonn
Originally Posted by Memo Rodriguez
Hi,

Since dogma is divinely revealed doctrine, considered essential for salvation, the answer would be:

All Catholics, regardless of their liturgical tradition, are obliged to accept all which the Catholic Church teaches to be dogma.

Therefore, there is no such thing as Roman Catholic Dogma. Catholic Dogma is simply Catholic (sans the Roman qualifier).

The real difference is not about which dogma to accept, rather, it is about which doctrines are actually dogmatic in nature.

Shalom,
Memo
Memo has offered a very good explanation. It has always seemed to me that East / West issues regarding dogma and doctrine are sometimes problematic simply because of poor communication. For some Eastern Catholics accepting Catholic dogma means also accepting the (what I call the) �Latin language of doctrine� as either superior to the �Greek language of doctrine� or as the measuring stick for all Catholic theology. And, of course, the Catholic Church does not require this (and has, indeed, many times spoken to this). Eastern Catholics must accept the dogmatic teachings of the Catholic Church. They must also accept that the Latin way of doing theology (the �Latin language of doctrine�) is valid. But there is no call or insistence that Eastern Catholics reject the �Greek language of doctrine� and replace it with the Latin formula. I will go so far as to say that the fact that we (as Eastern Catholics) have not really strived to find ways to study and digest the Latin formula and attempt to synthesize it with the �Greek language of doctrine� is an opportunity lost. Since the Vatican II Council we can see that Rome has been striving to speak to Catholic theology from the �Greek language of doctrine� as well as the �Latin language of doctrine�. The Melkites have taken some bold steps (and a few missteps) in trying to speak to some of the issues.

This is an issue that cuts right to the heart of the real problem of identity among Eastern Catholics. Some insist that we are Catholic first, and only then Eastern. But this is incorrect as it (among other things) leads to an identity crisis since many (but not all) of those who believe that the �Catholic first� approach means that the �Latin language of doctrine� is superior to the �Greek language of doctrine�. That is why I always firmly put forth as foundational that �Byzantine = Catholic� just as equally as �Latin = Catholic�.
John,

Your post is excellent. I simply could not agree more.

Our liturgical traditions and the employment of both the referential language of Scripture and the auxiliary language of tradition used in those texts offer tremendous opportunities to make those connections...especially since we as Easterns assert that these texts have great magisterial weight within our tradition.

In ICXC,

Gordo
Originally Posted by Administrator
Originally Posted by Memo Rodriguez
Hi,

Since dogma is divinely revealed doctrine, considered essential for salvation, the answer would be:

All Catholics, regardless of their liturgical tradition, are obliged to accept all which the Catholic Church teaches to be dogma.

Therefore, there is no such thing as Roman Catholic Dogma. Catholic Dogma is simply Catholic (sans the Roman qualifier).

The real difference is not about which dogma to accept, rather, it is about which doctrines are actually dogmatic in nature.

Shalom,
Memo
Memo has offered a very good explanation. It has always seemed to me that East / West issues regarding dogma and doctrine are sometimes problematic simply because of poor communication. For some Eastern Catholics accepting Catholic dogma means also accepting the (what I call the) �Latin language of doctrine� as either superior to the �Greek language of doctrine� or as the measuring stick for all Catholic theology. And, of course, the Catholic Church does not require this (and has, indeed, many times spoken to this). Eastern Catholics must accept the dogmatic teachings of the Catholic Church. They must also accept that the Latin way of doing theology (the �Latin language of doctrine�) is valid. But there is no call or insistence that Eastern Catholics reject the �Greek language of doctrine� and replace it with the Latin formula. I will go so far as to say that the fact that we (as Eastern Catholics) have not really strived to find ways to study and digest the Latin formula and attempt to synthesize it with the �Greek language of doctrine� is an opportunity lost. Since the Vatican II Council we can see that Rome has been striving to speak to Catholic theology from the �Greek language of doctrine� as well as the �Latin language of doctrine�. The Melkites have taken some bold steps (and a few missteps) in trying to speak to some of the issues.

This is an issue that cuts right to the heart of the real problem of identity among Eastern Catholics. Some insist that we are Catholic first, and only then Eastern. But this is incorrect as it (among other things) leads to an identity crisis since many (but not all) of those who believe that the �Catholic first� approach means that the �Latin language of doctrine� is superior to the �Greek language of doctrine�. That is why I always firmly put forth as foundational that �Byzantine = Catholic� just as equally as �Latin = Catholic�.

Definitely a superior post!

God bless!
hmmm...
What Eastern Catholics need to hold to be Catholic?
I would say:
1. believe everything which Eastern Orthodoxy teaches.
2. be in communion with the Bishop of Rome as the first among the bishops, according to the limits recognized by the Holy Fathers of the East during the first millennium, before the separation.

Herb
agreeing with Vladyka Elias Z
Originally Posted by Herbigny
hmmm...
What Eastern Catholics need to hold to be Catholic?
I would say:
1. believe everything which Eastern Orthodoxy teaches.
2. be in communion with the Bishop of Rome as the first among the bishops, according to the limits recognized by the Holy Fathers of the East during the first millennium, before the separation.

Herb

I would agree. This isuse of just what Eastern Catholics have to accept has never been spelled out. Not now, nor at the different times the various Particular Churches came in Union with Rome.

Ung
agreeing with Vladyka Elias Z
or to put it another way,

the only difference between the Eastern Catholic and the Orthodox should being in Communion with Rome

Herb
agreeing with Archimandrite Robert (Taft sj)
Originally Posted by Administrator
Originally Posted by Memo Rodriguez
Hi,

Since dogma is divinely revealed doctrine, considered essential for salvation, the answer would be:

All Catholics, regardless of their liturgical tradition, are obliged to accept all which the Catholic Church teaches to be dogma.

Therefore, there is no such thing as Roman Catholic Dogma. Catholic Dogma is simply Catholic (sans the Roman qualifier).

The real difference is not about which dogma to accept, rather, it is about which doctrines are actually dogmatic in nature.

Shalom,
Memo
Memo has offered a very good explanation. It has always seemed to me that East / West issues regarding dogma and doctrine are sometimes problematic simply because of poor communication. For some Eastern Catholics accepting Catholic dogma means also accepting the (what I call the) �Latin language of doctrine� as either superior to the �Greek language of doctrine� or as the measuring stick for all Catholic theology. And, of course, the Catholic Church does not require this (and has, indeed, many times spoken to this). Eastern Catholics must accept the dogmatic teachings of the Catholic Church. They must also accept that the Latin way of doing theology (the �Latin language of doctrine�) is valid. But there is no call or insistence that Eastern Catholics reject the �Greek language of doctrine� and replace it with the Latin formula. I will go so far as to say that the fact that we (as Eastern Catholics) have not really strived to find ways to study and digest the Latin formula and attempt to synthesize it with the �Greek language of doctrine� is an opportunity lost. Since the Vatican II Council we can see that Rome has been striving to speak to Catholic theology from the �Greek language of doctrine� as well as the �Latin language of doctrine�. The Melkites have taken some bold steps (and a few missteps) in trying to speak to some of the issues.

This is an issue that cuts right to the heart of the real problem of identity among Eastern Catholics. Some insist that we are Catholic first, and only then Eastern. But this is incorrect as it (among other things) leads to an identity crisis since many (but not all) of those who believe that the �Catholic first� approach means that the �Latin language of doctrine� is superior to the �Greek language of doctrine�. That is why I always firmly put forth as foundational that �Byzantine = Catholic� just as equally as �Latin = Catholic�.

While we Catholics do think that Byzantine = Catholic, I don't think we have done a good job of actually demonstrating that this equivalence is indeed so. In other words, we haven't done a good job of demonstrating that the Latin and Byzantine traditions do in fact teach and express the same thing. My impression is that the equivalence has been taken more or less as is it were an article of faith. It is merely assumed to "be there".

I believe that, if dialogue with the Orthodox is indeed to go forward, then we must honestly discuss the relation between the Byzantine and Latin traditions. I think that the Orthodox find it patronizing for us Catholics to basically just keep patting them on the head and say "oh, dears, don't worry, we actually believe the same thing!" My obervation is that the Orthodox take that as assuming too much, to say the least, and as implying an incomprehension of the actual Orthodox position. It also lies behind their critical attitude towards the "Unia", which they consider precisely as implying an unwarranted theological "sameness" between the Latin and Byzantine traditions.


Now, please don't get me wrong. I am NOT saying that Byzantine is not equal to Catholic. What I am saying is that we should take care to demonstrate this equivalence, instead of merely assuming that there is indeed an equivalence. Only by doing that can the Orthodox rest assured that we do take their tradition seriously.
Hi,

I would suggest that, since I believe that Byzantine Catholics (to take just one of the non-Latin Catholic traditions) are both serious in their Catholicism and mature believers, it befalls on them to express Catholic dogma in their own "theological dialect".

Just as unfortunate that nowadays Catholic dogma is first expressed almost exclusively in Latin dialect, in the olden days Catholic dogma used to be first expressed almost exclusively in Greek dialect and we did a good job (I think) in translating that and making it our own.

Nobody needs to be disenfranchised by this. Our thelogical diversity is a gift we cherish. It comes with a cost, of course, but it is a cost that is beneficial (and even fun!) to pay: Diversity comes with the cost of having to talk to each other as equals.

Are we ready for that yet? Or are we still interested in counting angels on a pin head?

Shalom,
Memo
Now, now. We must be kind to angels and tolerant of their hobbies. If they like to sit on the head of a pin, who are we to argue? I'm sure there are lots of things that we do that the angels find strange.

Fr. Serge
The angels on the head of a pin thing was really just an intellectual exercise, and that is all it was intended to be originally.

In other words, given the question "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin," a student must first determine a few givens.

The first scholastic assumption was that angels do not have material bodies, but are pure intelligences.

Therefore there are 'present' wherever their attention is focused.

Therefore, the answer to the question "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin?" is...

all of them.

I believe that the Orthodox understanding of angels is that they are not pure intelligences, but have material bodies, but not of a matter like men. This because only God is considered "Pure Spirit."

At least, that's what I heard...
Dear Prester John,

Killjoy! Why would you deprive the poor angels of the pleasure of dancing on the head of a pin?

Fr. Serge
Dear Father John:

Bless Father!

Aren't angels called "bodiless spirits" during our Holy Services?
Yet they can assume a human form as when the Angel appeared to Mary to announce the Annunciation. Could this alternate form be from another dimension or from a parallel universe?

Respectfully in Christ,
Elizabeth

Originally Posted by Prester John
The angels on the head of a pin thing was really just an intellectual exercise, and that is all it was intended to be originally.

In other words, given the question "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin," a student must first determine a few givens.

The first scholastic assumption was that angels do not have material bodies, but are pure intelligences.

Therefore there are 'present' wherever their attention is focused.

Therefore, the answer to the question "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin?" is...

all of them.

I believe that the Orthodox understanding of angels is that they are not pure intelligences, but have material bodies, but not of a matter like men. This because only God is considered "Pure Spirit."

At least, that's what I heard...

Originally Posted by Elizabeth Maria
Dear Father John:

Bless Father!

Aren't angels called "bodiless spirits" during our Holy Services?
Yet they can assume a human form as when the Angel appeared to Mary to announce the Annunciation. Could this alternate form be from another dimension or from a parallel universe?

Respectfully in Christ,
Elizabeth

Elizabeth,

That has always been my understanding as well. The angelic powers and heavenly hosts are immaterial, but can manifest themselves visibly as an accomodation to our materiality.

God bless,

Gordo
I forgot the smilie. smile
Could both Eastern and Western Philosophies and Theologies pertaining to Catholic & Orthodox be correct?

What if the Eastern Churches prayed for an answer that their theology was correct, and then the Western Church also prayed for an answer that their theology was correct and both received the answer "Yes"

then what? what would happen?
Rachael,

A very good question.

I think by and large it is a matter of emphasis between the Eastern and Western traditions. There are those who believe that the distinctives within these streams of Christianity represent absolutely divergent and irreconcilable points of view. Then there are others of us who also believe in the unity of Truth, while seeing that there is far more complimentarity (and even cross-fertilization) than some are willing to admit, and that both East and West are essentially catholic expressions of the same depositum fidei (deposit of faith).

God spoke His Final Word (His eternal "Yes!") who took flesh 2000 years ago and in Him resides the fullness of revelation. That same Word which convenes the Church of the Nations (a New Israel without borders) resonated across history, time, cultures, languages and peoples. The wonder and power of its universal scope and diversity makes it difficult for us to grasp, however, especially when looked at through the lens of an often difficult and contentious history none of us had a hand in creating.

So we have to discern these things together, we have to have the courage to state what we believe and not become distressed when we do not always agree or when we are criticized for our positions.

I do think John's insight about language and terminology is absolutely key. How do our temporal words align with and express the Eternal Word?

In ICXC,

Gordo
Shlomo Lkhoolkhoon,

What people seem to forget is that Dogma and Doctrine are not the same. For example Do I as an Eastern Catholic believe that Mary was sinless throughout her life. Yes, do I believe in the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, No. The reason is that our Maronite Doctrine explains very successfully how she could remain sinless.

The Catholic Church declares that all the Churches within the Communion are equal, now it is upto us to think the same.

Poosh BaShlomo Lkhoolkhoon,
Yuhannon
The Immaculate Conception isn't a doctrine. It's a dogma.

It seems to me that the unfortunate reality is that this dogma, which must be believed by all Catholic Christians exactly how it is infallibly formulated, and it's formulated using Latin terminology and theology. And that would, to me, seemingly make the "Latin way" of looking at this particular dogma the infallible and really only orthodox way, since Latin theology is the theology used to express this dogma. That would seem to make the differing theological patrimonies, de facto, unequal, wouldn't it?

Alexis
Originally Posted by Logos - Alexis
The Immaculate Conception isn't a doctrine. It's a dogma.

It seems to me that the unfortunate reality is that this dogma, which must be believed by all Catholic Christians exactly how it is infallibly formulated, and it's formulated using Latin terminology and theology. And that would, to me, seemingly make the "Latin way" of looking at this particular dogma the infallible and really only orthodox way, since Latin theology is the theology used to express this dogma. That would seem to make the differing theological patrimonies, de facto, unequal, wouldn't it?

Alexis

Shlomo Alexis,

If you look at the followup to this Dogma, especially after Vatican II, yes all Catholics believe Mary was born sinless, but the doctrinal underlaying of it is not arrived at the same way.

Poosh BaShlomo,
Yuhannon
I guess that we have to wait until the provincial "Latin way" is reformulated in a Universal "Greek way" at an Ecumenical Council for all things to be equal.
Originally Posted by Administrator
Memo has offered a very good explanation. It has always seemed to me that East / West issues regarding dogma and doctrine are sometimes problematic simply because of poor communication. For some Eastern Catholics accepting Catholic dogma means also accepting the (what I call the) �Latin language of doctrine� as either superior to the �Greek language of doctrine� or as the measuring stick for all Catholic theology. And, of course, the Catholic Church does not require this (and has, indeed, many times spoken to this). Eastern Catholics must accept the dogmatic teachings of the Catholic Church. They must also accept that the Latin way of doing theology (the �Latin language of doctrine�) is valid. But there is no call or insistence that Eastern Catholics reject the �Greek language of doctrine� and replace it with the Latin formula. I will go so far as to say that the fact that we (as Eastern Catholics) have not really strived to find ways to study and digest the Latin formula and attempt to synthesize it with the �Greek language of doctrine� is an opportunity lost. Since the Vatican II Council we can see that Rome has been striving to speak to Catholic theology from the �Greek language of doctrine� as well as the �Latin language of doctrine�. The Melkites have taken some bold steps (and a few missteps) in trying to speak to some of the issues.

This is an issue that cuts right to the heart of the real problem of identity among Eastern Catholics. Some insist that we are Catholic first, and only then Eastern. But this is incorrect as it (among other things) leads to an identity crisis since many (but not all) of those who believe that the �Catholic first� approach means that the �Latin language of doctrine� is superior to the �Greek language of doctrine�. That is why I always firmly put forth as foundational that �Byzantine = Catholic� just as equally as �Latin = Catholic�.

I agree in principal with this approach, however, it isn't always easily applied. Take for instance the teaching of original sin - do we inherit the guilt of Adam? Trent said that we do. Is Trent an ecumenical council, or just a general council of the West? Paul VI referred to the councils after Nicea II as being general councils of the west, but what is the official position? If they aren't ecumenical, and only apply to the West in their formulas we still run into a problem when we come to Vatican I. Either the Pope is infallible or he isn't. Though Rome has somewhat hedged on this in recent years too. The other problem is that I wrestle with is what I perceive as a tendency to over-dogmatize on the part of the Western Church. Ludwigg Ott, for example, almost makes everything a case of dogma. While Ott is only a private theologian, I think that his views of dogma are traditional, at least when it comes to the west. If that is the case how much �room,� to maneuver when it comes to questions of dogma? .
Originally Posted by Serge Keleher
Killjoy! Why would you deprive the poor angels of the pleasure of dancing on the head of a pin?

It's the insurance, Father.

Entirely to many claims for dancing on the wrong end, and no room on the pin for a warning label smile
Surely an angel would not drag you into court to assert a claim for financial compensation!

But to get serious for a moment - so far as I am aware, there is no "magic dogma" which determines whether Eastern Catholics are Catholics.

Moreover - and this may come as a shock - the New Testament was written in Greek; the greater Fathers of the first millennium wrote in Greek, so if any language has a claim to a sort of linguistic primacy, that is assuredly Greek. Where does anyone get off suggesting that those who believe the conciliar and patristic teaching of the New Testament and the greater Fathers of the first millennium must nevertheless be judged by Msgr Macchiavelli's dubious schoolbooks?

If you read Latin yourself, and you would like an example of where this can lead, I suggest Jugie's alleged compendium of "Oriental" theology written and published during the inter-war period. To the best of my knowledge, it has never been translated into any vernacular language, for which I am truly thankful. As Jaroslav Pelikan might have said, Jugie was a man who knew a whole lot and understood next to nothing - a theological cynic.

So I strongly suggest abandoning searches for such theological shibboleths.

Fr. Serge
Originally Posted by Logos - Alexis
The Immaculate Conception isn't a doctrine. It's a dogma.

It seems to me that the unfortunate reality is that this dogma, which must be believed by all Catholic Christians exactly how it is infallibly formulated, and it's formulated using Latin terminology and theology. And that would, to me, seemingly make the "Latin way" of looking at this particular dogma the infallible and really only orthodox way, since Latin theology is the theology used to express this dogma. That would seem to make the differing theological patrimonies, de facto, unequal, wouldn't it?

Alexis

Alexis,

I would approach this a different way.

Dogma is a (verbal) expression of the life of the Church, the same life given to the Church (us) at Pentecost and constantly reinforced and renewed*. It is formulated as needs present themselves. So, that's why ὁμοούσιος/consubstantialem/one in being/one in essence has existed since time began and will exist forever, but was formulated as a dogma only at Nicea. The formulated dogma does not exhaust the truth.

The way the Church has evolved, we have several different "traditions" (for lack of a better word) of theology. Two of those could be called "modern Latin" the other could be called "Byzantine". These two particular traditions approach theological questions with many philosophical, ontological differences as well as a massive difference in lexicography. However, they are both considered orthodox among those churches that are in communion with Rome (and mutual consideration of orthodoxy is absolutely necessary for communion)

If a dogma is formulated in one Church in its own tradition, it does not automatically follow that:

a. the dogma can be easily transmitted as pronounced into the other tradition and from there automatically accepted or rejected.

b. that the dogma - properly understood with all the historical, theological background behind it, and in its precise meaning in its own particular context - is incompatible with the other tradition.

I hold that a & b apply for a number of "problems", in include: Immaculate Conception, filioque, papal primacy, essence and energies.


Markos

* no those aren't my words. They're Archimandrite Vasileios'.
Hi,

Originally Posted by ByzBob
I agree in principal with this approach, however, it isn't always easily applied. Take for instance the teaching of original sin - do we inherit the guilt of Adam? Trent said that we do.


I am not so sure about that. Could you provide a quote from the acts of the Council of Trent where the fathers teach that we inherit the GUILT of Adam's sin?

My understanding is that guilt is non-transferable. We are simply born into a human race which has a broken relationship with God as a consequence of Adam's sin. Guilt and consequences are not the same.

Shalom,
Memo
Originally Posted by Memo Rodriguez
Hi,

Originally Posted by ByzBob
I agree in principal with this approach, however, it isn't always easily applied. Take for instance the teaching of original sin - do we inherit the guilt of Adam? Trent said that we do.


I am not so sure about that. Could you provide a quote from the acts of the Council of Trent where the fathers teach that we inherit the GUILT of Adam's sin?

My understanding is that guilt is non-transferable. We are simply born into a human race which has a broken relationship with God as a consequence of Adam's sin. Guilt and consequences are not the same.

Shalom,
Memo
One needs to examine the text of Trent carefully. In Latin �guilt� has more than one meaning. It can mean �doing the crime� as well as �paying the fine�. Such definition does not follow in the English use of the word. In Latin (for example) a husband can be guilty of �committing the crime� while his wife and kids would be guilty of �paying the fine� (i.e., living with the consequences of hard life since the husband is now in jail and they have nothing to eat and no roof over their head).

Saying (in Latin) that the wife is guilty of her husband�s crime does not mean she inherits the guilt of the actual crime. It means she inherits the guilt of paying the fine.

If you examine Trent in light of the two different definitions of �guilt� you can see that the guilt we inherit from Adam is not the guilt of committing the original sin but rather the guilt of living with the consequences of original sin.

This has been discussed before.
Originally Posted by Administrator
One needs to examine the text of Trent carefully. In Latin �guilt� has more than one meaning. It can mean �doing the crime� as well as �paying the fine�. Such definition does not follow in the English use of the word. In Latin (for example) a husband can be guilty of �committing the crime� while his wife and kids would be guilty of �paying the fine� (i.e., living with the consequences of hard life since the husband is now in jail and they have nothing to eat and no roof over their head).

Saying (in Latin) that the wife is guilty of her husband�s crime does not mean she inherits the guilt of the actual crime. It means she inherits the guilt of paying the fine.

If you examine Trent in light of the two different definitions of �guilt� you can see that the guilt we inherit from Adam is not the guilt of committing the original sin but rather the guilt of living with the consequences of original sin.

This has been discussed before.

John,

Yet that was one of the clearest explanations that I have read and plan to use it in my catechesis. What a great analogy! I've always heard the difference explained by saying that original sin is contracted (like a sickness), not committed. One of the Fathers used the imagery of sickness at the root of a tree. All seem to be saying the same thing: we inherit a wounded nature.

Thanks again!

Gordo
Originally Posted by Memo Rodriguez
Hi,

Originally Posted by ByzBob
I agree in principal with this approach, however, it isn't always easily applied. Take for instance the teaching of original sin - do we inherit the guilt of Adam? Trent said that we do.


I am not so sure about that. Could you provide a quote from the acts of the Council of Trent where the fathers teach that we inherit the GUILT of Adam's sin?

My understanding is that guilt is non-transferable. We are simply born into a human race which has a broken relationship with God as a consequence of Adam's sin. Guilt and consequences are not the same.

Shalom,
Memo

Memo,

Here is what I had in mind: If anyone asserts that the trangressio of Adam injured him alone and not his posterity, and that the holiness and justice which he received from God, which he lost, he lost for himself alone and not for us also; or that he, being defiled by the sin of disobedience, has transfused only death and the pains of the body into the whole human race, but not sin also, which is the death of the soul, let him be anathema, since he contradicts the Apostle who says: By one man sin entered into the world and by sin death; and so death passed upon all me, in who all sinned. - From the fifth session of Trent #2.

This always seemed to me to exclude our (the eastern) notion of original sin, but I like the explanation given by the adminstrator.

Bob
The Eastern Church has the teaching about the Ancestral Curse, which resulted from the sin of Adam. Is that not the same thing?
John,

I agree with Gordo that your Johnny Cochrane (sp?) analogy "one does the crime, another pays the fine" is an excellent catechetical technique for explaining Trent's definition.

You need to put it in a "rap" setting! biggrin

Michael
Originally Posted by Elizabeth Maria
The Eastern Church has the teaching about the Ancestral Curse, which resulted from the sin of Adam. Is that not the same thing?

Also, in the Creed we "profess one baptism for the remission of sins." How is that understood regarding the baptism of infants?

Dn. Anthony
Hi,

Quote
Memo,

Here is what I had in mind: If anyone asserts that the trangressio of Adam injured him alone and not his posterity, and that the holiness and justice which he received from God, which he lost, he lost for himself alone and not for us also; or that he, being defiled by the sin of disobedience, has transfused only death and the pains of the body into the whole human race, but not sin also, which is the death of the soul, let him be anathema, since he contradicts the Apostle who says: By one man sin entered into the world and by sin death; and so death passed upon all me, in who all sinned. - From the fifth session of Trent #2.

The problem is that anathema-tese grammar is totally backwards.

What I understand the fathers are teaching is:

1. Adam's transgression injured himself AND his posterity (notice that this injury is a consequence of the transgression, not the moral guilt associated wit it).

2. Adam lost the holiness and justice originally received from God not only for himself, but also for us (again, we are born into a broken relationship with God, but we are not guilty of breaking it, it was broken when we got here; on the other hand, Adam and Eve are guilty, they broke it).

3. Adam's disobedience had corporal consequences (death and pains of the body) as well as spiritual consequences (sin, which is spiritual death). Again, the consequences do affect us, but this is not guilt.

Now, I understand that there might be a Latin word that could be used for both guilt and consequences as the administator pointed out (I am no expert in Latin), but I also know the Latin church is very particular about these tings and has the tendency to define what a term means whenever it is used for things as important as these.

The way I understand this doctrine is this: If I go to Vegas an gamble my house and I lose it, my children are not guilty of the lost, however, it is not their house any more, they have no claim over it whatsoever.

Likewise, we are not guilty of the loss of the original holiness and justice, however, because Adam and Eve lost this, we have no claim over it.

Just like Adam and Eve received these gifts gratuituously from the creative act of God, we also receive them gratuituously from the redemptive act of God, who took our flesh, died for us and rose again to give us eternal life.


Shalom,
Memo


Memo,

The only point I was attmepting to make is at times it can be difficult to know exactly what is, and what isn't dogmatic as far as the west is concerned. I used the doctrine of original only as an example of the difficulty. I must seek your forgiveness, however, because I didn't quote all that Trent had to say, in the same decree the council adds this �If anyone denies, that, by the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is conferred in baptism, the guilt of original sin is remitted � let him be anathema� (Decree on Original Sin, canon 5). If east and west are saying the same thing on this point then it is a poor example of what I was trying to say.
As an Eastern Christian I do not use the word "guilt" when speaking about the effects of the original sin, but the Latins are free to do so if they wish.

Thus, as I see it, death and corruption (i.e., ontological corruption, but not moral corruption) are the effects of Adam's transgression; while the eternal Logos, by His incarnation, passion, death, resurrection, and ascension into glory, has conquered death by death, and has bestowed ever-being upon all mankind.
Originally Posted by Apotheoun
As an Eastern Christian I do not use the word "guilt" when speaking about the effects of the original sin, but the Latins are free to do so if they wish.

Thus, as I see it, death and corruption (i.e., ontological corruption, but not moral corruption) are the effects of Adam's transgression; while the eternal Logos, by His incarnation, passion, death, resurrection, and ascension into glory, has conquered death by death, and has bestowed ever-being upon all mankind.

That is my understanding as well. Which is why I have a hard time reconciling it to Trent, especially the first anathema that I posted earlier, ".... has transfused only death and the pains of the body into the whole human race, but not sin also, which is the death of the soul, let him be anathema." That is why I thought the council used guilt in the Augustian sense, not in the sense of consequence. I am often reminded by my latin friends of this whenever this is discussed.

Blessings,

Bob
Originally Posted by ByzBob
Originally Posted by Apotheoun
As an Eastern Christian I do not use the word "guilt" when speaking about the effects of the original sin, but the Latins are free to do so if they wish.

Thus, as I see it, death and corruption (i.e., ontological corruption, but not moral corruption) are the effects of Adam's transgression; while the eternal Logos, by His incarnation, passion, death, resurrection, and ascension into glory, has conquered death by death, and has bestowed ever-being upon all mankind.

That is my understanding as well. Which is why I have a hard time reconciling it to Trent, especially the first anathema that I posted earlier, ".... has transfused only death and the pains of the body into the whole human race, but not sin also, which is the death of the soul, let him be anathema." That is why I thought the council used guilt in the Augustian sense, not in the sense of consequence. I am often reminded by my latin friends of this whenever this is discussed.

Blessings,

Bob

The Patristic view did not reduce the idea of Original Sin to simply the inheritance of the death of the body. One also inherits a propensity to engage in sin (anyone who holds to another position has no children) and the absence or privation of filial grace originally intended for the offspring of Adam, had he chosen differently. There is nothing in Trent which says that man inherits the actual, personal guilt of Adam. To say so is to misunderstand Trent.

In ICXC,

Gordo
Fr. Hugh Barbour's article makes a wonderful point about the so called division between Eastern and Western explanations of theological truth.

http://www.balkanstudies.org/1998/barber.htm

In his article, Fr. Barbour notes the praise that Gennadios bestows upon Thomas Aquinas:

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But let us hear what Gennadios, the patriarch, patriot, and anti-Latin zealot has to say in the preface to his summaries- of all things-the two Summae of St. Thomas Aquinas:

"The present book is a summary of two books, on of that against the Gentiles, or those heresies which oppose the truth, the other the first part of the Summa Theologiae of which there are three parts. We have taken up the labor of such a summary on account of our great love for these two books. We have put these things together which we had written out before our captivity, and later rediscovered in the diaspora. Since they are in no wise of an easily transportable size on account of the breadth and size of the chapters and questions, and of the fullness of the precise arguments contained in them, and since this our unfortunate life after our national disaster lavishes on us wanderings and distasteful goings and comings, and being unable to carry about so great a weight of books, of necessity and for no other ambition we have made a project of this summary so that it can suffice for us and for anyone else who is well versed in them, in place of the complete books. The author of these books is a Latin by birth and so he adheres to the dogma of that church as an inheritance; this is only human. But he is a wise man, and is inferior to none of those who are perfect in wisdom among men. He wrote most especially as a commentator of Aristotelian philosophy, and of the Old and New Testaments. Most of the principal conclusions of both Sacred Theology and philosophy are seen in his books, almost all of which we have studied, both the few which were translated by others into the Greek language, and their Latin originals, some of which we ourselves have translated into our own tongue. (But alas! All our labor was in vain, for we were about to suffer along with the fatherland which perished on account of our wickedness, the divine mercy being unable to hold out any longer against the divine justice.)In all the aforesaid areas this wise man is most excellent, as the best interpreter and synthesizer in those matters in which his church agrees with ours..) In those things wherein that church and he differ from us-they are few in number-namely on the procession of the Holy Spirit and the divine essence and energies, in these not only do we observe the dogma of our fatherland, but we have even fought for it in many books. Our zeal even to the shedding of blood for our dogmas is evident to all men, both friends and enemies, and the whole world is filled with the books we have produced against those who deny them. Glory be to God in all things!"[3]

In a later summary of the Prima secundae of the Summa Theologiae, completed while in retirement at Serres, Gennadios sums up his attitude to the Angelic Doctor: "Would O excellent Thomas that you had not been born in the West. Then you would not have needed to defend the deviations of the church there�you would have been as perfect in theology as you are in ethics."[4]

Gennadios' Thomism is not a sort of hapax in Orthodox thought, We are not dealing here with the idiosyncrasy of one thinker. He represents an already longstanding late Byzantine tradition of admiration and judicious use of Aquinas' works by theologians and apostles of the first rank. The emperor-monk John VI Joasaph Kantakuzenos, a fervent Palamite, in fact the imperial vindicator of the doctrine of Palamas, was a monk of the Charsianeites monastery where Gennadios was to enter almost a century later. As emperor he had sponsored the translation of Thomas' Summa contra gentiles by Demetrios Kydones, and he used this very translation to refute the latinizing doctrine of Demetrios' own brother Prochoros who was also a Thomist. Both the latinophron and the Palamite zealot appealed to the teaching of Aquinas. Gennadios' two teachers, also monks of the monastery of Charsianeites, Joseph Bryennios and Makarios Makres, whom the Orthodox venerate as blessed, used the writings of St. Thomas in their dialogue treatises against the Muslims, taking arguments verbatim, but without attribution, from the Contra gentiles in defense of the incarnation and of consecrated virginity.

As Eastern Catholics we have been given the unique privilege and perhaps the duty to allow the Orientale Lumen to shine forth. The question is will we allow ourselves to be the conduit for this light or will we hold that there is a distinctive "theology" which is different than both Orthodox and Roman Catholic theology? The latter only lends itself to modernism cloaked in religious dialogue. As Fr. Barbour states:

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For if there is a Byzantine outlook or a Latin one which determines dogma itself, if there is any human criterion which is the most formal explanation of the faith and practice of the Church , and not the fact of God revealing the faith "once for all delivered to the saints," and the human mind able to give its reasonable assent, then the faith is simply one stage in a dialectical progress which leaves it outmoded, and doctrinal differences are simply irreducible antitheses ready to be resolved into a higher synthesis which makes their truth or falsehood irrelevant.

Benedict XVI seems to have made his mark on the issue by reminding us that Greek philosphy and revelation share a common language--for the Word became flesh in the world influenced by Greek thought and revelation was handed on to us in the Greek language:

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Is the conviction that acting unreasonably contradicts God's nature merely a Greek idea, or is it always and intrinsically true? I believe that here we can see the profound harmony between what is Greek in the best sense of the word and the biblical understanding of faith in God. Modifying the first verse of the Book of Genesis, the first verse of the whole Bible, John began the prologue of his Gospel with the words: "In the beginning was the λόγος". This is the very word used by the emperor: God acts, σὺν λόγω, with logos. Logos means both reason and word - a reason which is creative and capable of self-communication, precisely as reason. John thus spoke the final word on the biblical concept of God, and in this word all the often toilsome and tortuous threads of biblical faith find their culmination and synthesis. In the beginning was the logos, and the logos is God, says the Evangelist. The encounter between the Biblical message and Greek thought did not happen by chance. The vision of Saint Paul, who saw the roads to Asia barred and in a dream saw a Macedonian man plead with him: "Come over to Macedonia and help us!" (cf. Acts 16:6-10) - this vision can be interpreted as a "distillation" of the intrinsic necessity of a rapprochement between Biblical faith and Greek inquiry.

In point of fact, this rapprochement had been going on for some time. The mysterious name of God, revealed from the burning bush, a name which separates this God from all other divinities with their many names and simply asserts being, "I am", already presents a challenge to the notion of myth, to which Socrates' attempt to vanquish and transcend myth stands in close analogy.[8] Within the Old Testament, the process which started at the burning bush came to new maturity at the time of the Exile, when the God of Israel, an Israel now deprived of its land and worship, was proclaimed as the God of heaven and earth and described in a simple formula which echoes the words uttered at the burning bush: "I am". This new understanding of God is accompanied by a kind of enlightenment, which finds stark expression in the mockery of gods who are merely the work of human hands (cf. Ps 115). Thus, despite the bitter conflict with those Hellenistic rulers who sought to accommodate it forcibly to the customs and idolatrous cult of the Greeks, biblical faith, in the Hellenistic period, encountered the best of Greek thought at a deep level, resulting in a mutual enrichment evident especially in the later wisdom literature. Today we know that the Greek translation of the Old Testament produced at Alexandria - the Septuagint - is more than a simple (and in that sense really less than satisfactory) translation of the Hebrew text: it is an independent textual witness and a distinct and important step in the history of revelation, one which brought about this encounter in a way that was decisive for the birth and spread of Christianity.[9] A profound encounter of faith and reason is taking place here, an encounter between genuine enlightenment and religion. From the very heart of Christian faith and, at the same time, the heart of Greek thought now joined to faith, Manuel II was able to say: Not to act "with logos" is contrary to God's nature.

http://www.vatican.va/holy_father/b...e_20060912_university-regensburg_en.html
Originally Posted by ebed melech
The Patristic view did not reduce the idea of Original Sin to simply the inheritance of the death of the body. One also inherits a propensity to engage in sin (anyone who holds to another position has no children) and the absence or privation of filial grace originally intended for the offspring of Adam, had he chosen differently.
The mortality I spoke of in my post is not simply physical, and that is why I said that there is an ontological � but not a moral � corruption that results from the original sin. Now, because all men are mortal they tend to fall into sins, but that does not mean that men are compelled to sin, because sin by definition requires a free personal choice on the part of the individual who acts.

Now with the foregoing information in mind, I have no problem saying that as an Eastern Christian I do not accept the teaching concerning the nature and the effects of the orginal sin espoused by the bishops at the Council of Trent, which is merely a local synod of the Western Church, nor do I accept the Scholastic theory of "original justice" promoted by that same synod. In fact, as I see it, man was not created in "original justice," since justice � like any other virtue � requires the effort of habitual actualization; instead, man was created innocent, and he possessed from the moment of his creation the possibility of acquiring justice through ascetic practice. Lastly, as far as grace is concerned, man � even after the fall � continues to exist in God's energy (i.e., grace), because if grace were completely withdrawn from man, he would have immediately ceased to exist (cf. St. Gregory Palamas, Capita Physica, no. 78).

Originally Posted by ebed melech
There is nothing in Trent which says that man inherits the actual, personal guilt of Adam. To say so is to misunderstand Trent.
I honestly see no reason why an Eastern Christian should forced to adopt the Western Scholastic / Augustinian view of the creation, fall, and redemption of man. It would be better for a Byzantine Christian to remain faithful to the unique patristic heritage of his own Church, and avoid the concept of inherited guilt altogether. Let Latins be Latin, and Byzantines be Byzantine.
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Let Latins be Latin, and Byzantines be Byzantine.

And never the twain shall meet? Surely this cannot be what the Lord had in mind when he prayed that all should be one as He and the Father are one.

Houston we have a problem....

I think rather, Latins and Byzantines need to focus on the fact that they must be, through the mercy of Him who died for them -- one, holy, catholic and apostolic Church.

This may come as a shock, but we are already One, Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. Vatican II has made it clear that the Local Churches may and do have distinct theologies, disciplines, liturgical and spiritual traditions.

As for "never the twain shall meet", well, we meet each other quite often in practice - sometimes with wonderful results and sometimes with results best forgotten, but that is the human condition.

Fr. Serge
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the Local Churches do have distinct theologies, disciplines, liturgical and spiritual traditions.

Fr. Serge,

While the disciplines, liturgical and spiritual traditions are wonderfully varied, and the theology may emphasize different aspects of the Truth, there is a sense in which the theology which is about the same faith expressed in the Nicean Creed, must in fact be the same.

Please remember that the statement above comes from an American whose many "Local Churches" have emphasized their "distinct theologies" many of which didn't ever appear to be Catholic! whistle
Please remember that your humble servant was born in New York City and holds an American passport.

Fr. Serge
I believe the maxim attributed to Saint Augustine applies here:

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"In essentials, unity; in non-essentials, liberty; in all things, charity,"

Now what often seems to be at issue is the distinction between essentials and non-essentials, as well as how to adhere to and ensure unity of essence without mandating unity of form. Problems also arise where an excessive particularism seeks to undermine universal fullness.

This is where I believe one absolutely must respect the magisterial nature of liturgical worship. I am finding that the more I learn how to theologize in and through the liturgy (where the universal finds its highest expression in all its localized particularity) the more I can appreciate the breadth and depth of the Church's catholicity.

Liturgy defines the contours of all theology. In this regard, all doctrine must be in agreement with the Eucharist, to paraphrase Ignatius of Antioch.

So, as it pertains to the question of Adam's "guilt", for instance, or Peter's primacy, or Mary's innocence at her conception, I think we have to begin with how these matters are addressed liturgically: the hymnography, the texts, the iconography, the Scripture readings, the credal statementsintended for a liturgical context, etc etc. Therefore even our readings of the Scriptures, the Fathers, the Councils and the Hierarchs have to be seen through that lens. There I think we see that the East (whichever East we are discussing - there are several, of course!) clearly has a distinctive view, but I disagree that it is a matter of contradicting Catholic dogmatic positions.
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Liturgy defines the contours of all theology. In this regard, all doctrine must be in agreement with the Eucharist, to paraphrase Ignatius of Antioch.

There are limits....think of the RDL.
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