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#283416 03/19/08 04:59 PM
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Do these terms equate fully, or only in part? In the writings of Latin theologians, "Concupiscence" is what remains after baptism which we must labor to mortify in order to aquire salvation. "The Passions" is used in a similar way by Greek theologians; indeed salvation is sometimes set forth (negatively) as deliverance from them, as in the Troparion of Tone 8. But is there a difference between these ideas, and if so precisely what?

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Well...I would think the "deliverance" from Concupiscence in the Eastern Churches would be "Theosis."

From my understanding, Concupiscence is like a bad after taste of something that no longer exists. For example, if I was to eat garlic, and now garlic is down into my system for digestion, but the taste of garlic remains even though it's no longer there.

Even though we have been baptized, redeemed by the Blood of Christ (full climax of Christ's Death and Resurrection...that He gave death to death), we continue to suffer, have pain, die, etc. So it's like what's up with that...so hence it's the concupiscence of sins even though we are now redeemed.

So, theosis would be a good life long journey process to become like Christ...to turn away from sin...

Is that a good assessment?

SPDundas
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For example, if I was to eat garlic, and now garlic is down into my system for digestion, but the taste of garlic remains even though it's no longer there.
If I were to eat garlic and the taste remained in my mouth, it would be a good memory.

I see your point but I just have to pick another food item.


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