Glory to Jesus Christ!

So I have been doing some reading in the CCC and reflection on this whole controversy. I have a few questions that may seem redundant, but please humor me in answering even those that may seem self explanatory. First a comparison between the states of Adam and Eve before and after the fall.

Before the fall: they were immortal, had a will that was fully intact, were not inclined towards sin, had infused knowledge, had (what the Roman Catholic Church refers to) preternatural gifts (not sure if there is an equivalent term or belief in Eastern Christianity), and a certain union or life with God.

After the fall: they were mortal, had a weakened will, were inclined towards sin (either because of concupiscence or of their passions), a darkened understanding, had to learn knowledge, lost their preternatural gifts and were spiritually dead.

We are born into this latter state (of Original Sin or of the consequences of the ancestral sin).

A few questions:

Q1) Is the original holiness and justice that Adam and Eve lived in a life of grace? In other words, did they share in the life of God as we baptized Christians do?

Q2) If no, what was their relationship to God if they were not sharers of His grace, sharers in His life? Obviously it is different from both our baptized condition and that of non-baptized persons.

Q3) If after the fall, we were separated (from whatever kind of relationship our first parents had) from God and all are born in this state of spiritual death, then how would the most Holy Theotokos be "full of grace" if she is in a state of spiritual death as the rest of humanity if there was no Immaculate Conception?

Q3) Unless she was made "full of grace" at the moment of the angel's salutation and had lived a life without sin (which we all, east and west agree on, well, I guess not all as I just remembered some Orthodox believe she did sin ) then how could the God from whom we are separated be held in the womb of a creature which is in spiritual death? (I ask this question this because 1) I understand as stated that there is an understanding that she was made "full of grace" upon the salutation. But, 2) the counter argument being proposed instead of the Immaculate Conception is that she was in the same state as any other individual except that she did not sin.)

Upon reflection of this last question, in the Eastern understanding, are all men after Adam and Eve born in a state of spiritual death or does one have to commit sin to be spiritually dead? If one is not spiritually dead unless they commit a mortal sin and the Eastern understanding is not that we received spiritual death from Adam, then I could better understand the counter argument for Mary being in the same state as the rest of humanity.

Again, these may seem self-explanatory but please humor me in answering these questions.

Kyrie eleison,

Manuel