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Joined: Nov 2001
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Good Evening All,
Can someone explain the uses of leavened and unleavened bread as used in the Byzantine and Roman rites?
Peace,
Loretta
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Dear Sister, it is just custom depending upon the cultural aspects of a different community. Some use the unleavened, perhaps in conformity with the Jewish pattern. Others use leavened because bread uses yeast or some other leavening agent.
In reality, it doesn't make a difference. As long as it is wheat flour with water and salt, it's OK.
Blessings!
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Dear Loretta,
Both traditions had developed explanations and symbolism to clarify the reasons for their preference.
Again, these do not necessarily conflict with each other if you understand that this is only custom.
If I'm not wrong, the West sees unleavened bread as free of impurities and also matter that conforms to what was used at the Last Supper.
The East considers the rising of the yeast as symbolic of the Resurrection. It also alludes to the parable in the Gospel which compares the Kingdom of Heaven to leaven.
In IC XC
Samer
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Touching on what SamB said.
In the west the Chruch uses unleavened bread as a historical reminder of the passion and last suppper. Hence a large central Crucifix at the churches center.
In the East, it is the bread of heaven, or as SamB stated the reference to the Kingdom of Heaven as leaven. The East emphasises the ressurection and the joyful Pascha, and heavenly baquet. We do not look at the Eucharist as so much hostorical but more in an ascendqant way.
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I am open to correction of course, but I believe the scriptural word for what Jesus used at last supper is "artos." This could describe leavened or unleavened bread, leaving open the question whether or not Jesus was celebrating the Passover meal (Synoptic Gospels' witness) or not (the witness of John). The Eastern Churches have always had a special soft spot for the Gospel of John, no?
[ 11-19-2001: Message edited by: durak ]
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You all are truly a blessing... thank you for explaining.
Peace,
Loretta
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