www.byzcath.org Forums Faith & Christian Life Faith & Theology A Question on the Sacraments

Dear Father Ed,
A follow up, if in the case of mixed marriage and one of the spouse is a non-Christian, can this be grounds of invalidity of the sacrament of marriage?

Hi Alice,
I think I found something. I believe the tridentine formula is just repeating the teachings of Chalcedon concerning the the two natures of Christ and their inseparable hypostatic union "eis en prosopon kai mian hypostasin."

A denial of the hypostatic union in the Eucharist (that the soul and divinity of Christ are absent) would be heretical.

Hi Alex,
I have read your essay about Jan Hus. I'll develve on this.

elexeie

Elexeie:

This is a question that really pertains to the Latin Church since "invalidity" is not (normally) a consideration of the Eastern Church.

Therefore, this answer will come from a Latin canonical standpoint. No.

The Latin Church recognizes two "kinds" of marriage: a sacramental marriage and a "natural bond" marriage. Because the theology of the West has the couple ministering the sacrament to each other, a sacramental marriage can only exist between two Christians since only a Christian can "give" a sacrament. A non-Christian cannot give what he or she does not have.

Requirements for validity in the Latin Church are that the marriage took place according to canonical form (in a church before a bishop, priest or deacon) unless a dispensation was granted; that each party to the marriage intended the marriage to be: open to children, permanent, exclusive and for the good of the spouse. Defects in any of these bonae of marriage render the marriage invalid.

Edward, deacon and sinner

Dear Father,
You said that a non-christian cannot give what he or she does not have when it pertains to marriage. How is this different from a non-Christian administering the Sacrament of Baptism? Can the principle of "ex opere operato" be applied also to the Sacrament of Marriage?

In Christ,
Elexeie

Eleixeie:

First, since this seems to have become a question of Latin theology, it really doesn't belong on this board.

However, to answer your question: Latin theology states: Because baptism is necessary for salvation and marriage is not, the Latin Church sees it functioning differently.

Edward, deacon and sinner

Dear Father,
Thank you for sharing your thoughts and putting up with my questions.

I really appreciate your replies.

In Christ,
elexeie

If I may be so bold as to add to Fr. Deacon Ed's wonderful words.

Prior to Baptism, a Soul has no Sanctity. It can therefore not give itself in a Santified Marriage. Marriage is a function of the soul offering itself to God to be joined with another.

An unbaptized person can still pray to God, can they not?


In Baptizing a person, it is truely
a prayer to God to grant the Grace of Salvation upon another soul.

Unlike Marriage, Baptism is not a function of a person's own soul, only of a person's hands and mouth. The actual Sacrement is conferred by the Spirit through the Father and Son.

In actual practice in the RCC, if Baptism was not ministered by a Bishop, Priest or Deacon, the recipient WILL given a 'conditional' Baptism.

This conditional Baptism is NOT viewed as a 2nd Baptism (there can be only one), but 'just in case' there were errors in the first ( of which only God will know for certain).

If the first was well and truely Sacremental, the effect of the 'second' will be that of a blessing only.

FYI,

I do know of one case where a non-Baptized person performed a Baptism.

A Jewish father-to-be (with a Catholic wife) was in the process of converting (in the RCIA program) and was to be Baptized himself at the next Easter time.

The birth of their child was complicated and the child had problems. The new mother was in no condition to do much, so the father Baptized the child.

The child did survive and was later conditionally Baptized along with her father at Easter vigil.

Hi,

May I add to this very interesting discussion that it seems to me that we are confusing the terms:

not-baptized

and

non-believer?

As it was pointed out in the case of the Jewish catechumen who emergency-baptized her child, he was not baptized, but he was a believer in the orthodox catholic faith.

These are the cases when it makes sense to have a canonical provision for non-baptized to be able to baptize.

How can anyone have the right intention to baptize without being a Christian believer him/herself?

And as of the theology of the Sacrament of Matrimony, I like the Western position better. If Holy Matrimony is a Sacrament, then it is an efficient symbol of a Divine Grace, and that Divine Grace is not other than the New Covenant in Christ.

Indeed, the Apostle St. Paul reminds us that the husband is the sacrament of Christ, and the wife is the sacrament of the Church, and that their union is the sacrament of Christ's union with His Church. In this regards, the persons of the spouses themselves become the matter of the sacrament, I think it is unappropriate for the minister to be an external agent, as it is Christ Himself who offers His All to His Church, and the Church herself who offers her all to her Lord.

Shalom,
Memo.