Late addition to this thread:
Sorry I came off snide Carole. I didn't intend to when I wrote the response.
But returning to the meat of your question, the Byzantine Catholics are "Catholic" because of their union with Rome; not necessarily because of any dogmae or theological similarities.
All that said, there is no difference on major dogma to my knowledge which would prevent their union; so your assumption is correct as far as I understand. [I hope that's consistent with the rest of this thread!]
Originally posted by Carole:
No need to be snide.
As I said I understand that on dogmatic issues there can be no deviation. However, there could well be matters of theological opinion where the East and the West have differing opinions/definitions.
I shall assume then that there are none.